Common Jewish Idiom?

Whenever the three days and three nights of Matthew 12:40 is brought up in a “discussion” with 6th day crucifixion adherents, they frequently argue that it is a common Jewish idiom for counting any part of a day as a whole day. I wonder if anyone has documentation that shows that a phrase stating a specific number of days and/or a specific number of nights was ever used in the first century or before when it absolutely couldn't have included at least parts of each one of the specific number of days and at least parts of each one of the specific number of nights?

In the Talmud a part of a day is considered to be as a whole day when calculating certain things.
Babylonian Talmud Shabbos page 85A where R, Akiva states that part of a day is reckoned as a whole.

No big fan of JC though

Originally posted by rstrats
Whenever the three days and three nights of Matthew 12:40 is brought up in a “discussion” with 6th day crucifixion adherents, they frequently argue that it is a common Jewish idiom for counting any part of a day as a whole day. I wonder if anyone has documentation that shows that a phrase stating a specific number of days and/or a specific number of nights was ever used in the first century or before when it absolutely couldn't have included at least parts of each one of the specific number of days and at least parts of each one of the specific number of nights?

It's the sign of Jonah. He was in the darkness of the belly of a whale for 3 days. It's symbolism for Jesus being in the darkness of the ground/death for 3 days/nights. Hebrew days begin at about 6 pm with the rising of the moon and the new day begins at about 6 pm the next day.

Originally posted by rstrats
Whenever the three days and three nights of Matthew 12:40 is brought up in a “discussion” with 6th day crucifixion adherents, they frequently argue that it is a common Jewish idiom for counting any part of a day as a whole day. I wonder if anyone has documentation that shows that a phrase stating a specific number of days and/or a specific number of nights was ever used in the first century or before when it absolutely couldn't have included at least parts of each one of the specific number of days and at least parts of each one of the specific number of nights?

It is rhetoric to get around the fact the Yahoshua was not crucified on a Friday.Yahoshua had zero conformity to Jewish idioms.If he said 3 days and 3 nights that's what it was no idioms involved.It just takes a 2nd grader genius to figure it out.That truth twisting syndrome is only an atom on the tip of an iceberg.A little leaven makes the whole lump leaven.

Originally posted by rstrats
Whenever the three days and three nights of Matthew 12:40 is brought up in a “discussion” with 6th day crucifixion adherents, they frequently argue that it is a common Jewish idiom for counting any part of a day as a whole day. I wonder if anyone has documentation that shows that a phrase stating a specific number of days and/or a specific number of nights was ever used in the first century or before when it absolutely couldn't have included at least parts of each one of the specific number of days and at least parts of each one of the specific number of nights?

Is this why some of the biblical characters lived to be 900 years old?

dashen,

re: "In the Talmud a part of a day is considered to be as a whole day when calculating certain things"

As regards the Jewish practice of counting any part of a calendar day as a whole day I would agree, but when nights is added to days to yield a phrase "x' days AND "X" nights it normally refers to a measurement of time where day refers to the light portion of a 24 hour period and night refers to the dark portion of a 24 hour period. No one In the history of apologetics as far as I know has ever presented any historical documentation that a phrase "x" days AND "x" nights was a unique first century idiom of Hebrew/Aramaic/Greek which could mean something different than what the phrase means in English. If you have such documentation, I would very much like to see it. That is what I am asking for in the OP.

lonewolf19792000,

re: "It's the sign of Jonah. He was in the darkness of the belly of a whale for 3 days. It's symbolism for Jesus being in the darkness of the ground/death for 3 days/nights. Hebrew days begin at about 6 pm with the rising of the moon and the new day begins at about 6 pm the next day."

I'm afraid I don't see how your reply is responsive to my request in the OP. I wonder if you might explain?

reply to post by Rex282

Yahoshua had zero conformity to Jewish idioms.

You probably meant Jesus.
Jesus did not write any books that we know about, but we do have the gospels that do "conform with Jewish idioms".
Unless you think you were an eyewitness yourself somehow and know better than the Bible.

jmdewey60,

re: "... we do have the gospels that do 'conform with Jewish idioms'".

So then do you know of any writing as asked for in the OP?

reply to post by rstrats
. . . so shall the Son of man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth.

So then do you know of any writing as asked for in the OP?

"The evening and the morning was the first day" in Genesis 1.

Friday, starting thursday evening = 1st "day and night".
Saturday, starting Friday evening = 2nd "day and night".
Sunday, starting Saturday evening = 3rd "day and night".

jmdewey60,

I don't see where your reply furnishes writing that shows a phrase stating a specific number of days and/or a specific number of nights when it absolutely couldn't have included at least parts of each one of the specific number of days and at least parts of each one of the specific number of nights. Why do you think that it does?

jmdewey60,

re: "Friday, starting thursday evening..."

By "thursday evening" do you mean the first half of the 5th calendar day of the week?

I probably should have addressed the OP to those who think that the crucifixion took place on the 6th day of the week.

reply to post by rstrats

By "thursday evening" do you mean the first half of the 5th calendar day of the week?

It was pretty much universal from back to the beginning of recorded history, that the planets were associated with the days of the week, in the same order as they are today.
The Jews would have avoided the use of the names of the gods with particular days.
But if you were a Roman, then you would use the planet/god names.

jmdewey60,

I don't see how your reply to my question: "By 'thursday evening' do you mean the first half of the 5th calendar day of the week?" answers it. I wonder if you might explain why you think it does?

reply to post by rstrats


I will give you a clue Christ was not crusified on friday. He resurected before dawn on Sunday. So how do you get three days and three nights out of two nights and one day

guitarplayer,

re: "I will give you a clue Christ was not crusified on friday."

As I said previously, I probably should have addressed the OP to those who think that the crucifixion took place on the 6th day of the week."

Yes it's the new math called "make theories up and call it Truth".If the facts don't fit the theory.... change the facts.

Since it's been awhile, perhaps someone new looking in will know of some writing.

jmdewey60,

You have a question directed to you in post #15.