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Originally posted by Sly1one
Originally posted by TTAA2012
Originally posted by Sly1one
[
One of the issues that people have with the "Jewish" mind set is the narcissistic "god favors us" nonsense
Just thought I'd set you straight on something. "Chosen" doesn't mean that they are better than anyone else; they were chosen as the instrument through which God works His will. Many Jews wish they weren't chosen, because if you haven't noticed, being the "Chosen Ones" hasn't been all butterfies and Pixis dust for the Jews.
As a group they have suffered more than any nation on the face of the Earth, for much longer. The only reason that the Jews haven't been consigned to the dustbin of history like the Assyrians, Akkadians, Caananites, et al., is because they have been protected from annihilation by God, brought back into the land of the Promise just as the Bible foretells in Isaiah.
And you would deny them this spit of land that is only 6 miles across at its narrowest point. Shame on you.
lol yes shame on me for not "favoring the Jews" this is where the anti-semite mind set comes into play which only validates the claim they think they are better than everyone as "gods chosen"....They even have a special term for people who aren't like them...those gentiles (non-Jews) that were given to the Jews by the imaginary character to "use" as they will...and so out of the "chosen people" mindset came the concept of "usury"....
And there you go claiming "victim-hood" of the Jews as if they are the ONLY people on earth to have ever of suffered then veil the implied narcissism of the "gods chosen people" in a farce of "some of us wish we weren't gods chosen people" because of the above sensationalized victim-hood that leads you to believe yet once again you are so special, so different, so above and beyond that you have suffered MORE than any other people....
I bet you believe more Jews died than anyone in WW2 don't you....what sensational nonsense...one cannot even have a rational discussion on those premises. You probably believe the entirety of WW2 was over the Jews as well...the other casualties pale in comparison to the better not be challenged 6 million Jew deaths...even the ~70 million total WWII casualty number is some how less than that oh so important ~6 million Jews....
shame on me....shame on me for thinking outside the propaganda...shame on me for putting things in to perspective, and shame on me for challenging the "Jewish" suffering as being the most important damned thing to ever grace this imaginary mans earth...
sigh...
The Near Genocide that happened to Jews during WW2 is a travesty that we as Humans must see never happens again.
Originally posted by TTAA2012
Out of 9 million Jews in pre-war Europe, only three and a half million survived.
.
Originally posted by Tw0Sides
The Near Genocide that happened to Jews during WW2 is a travesty that we as Humans must see never happens again.
Originally posted by TTAA2012
Out of 9 million Jews in pre-war Europe, only three and a half million survived.
.
Thats why it boggles me that THEY are committing Genocide in Gaza.
Originally posted by Darkmask
reply to post by TTAA2012
Numbers? This just scratches the surface.
israelipalestinian.procon.org/view.resource.php?resourceID=000639< br />
Seems pretty one-sided to me.edit on 25-9-2012 by Darkmask because: content
The above table shows that the figure of 15,688,259 in the World Almanac of 1946 is really for the year 1939. Thus one must not conclude that the Jewish population was the same before the war (1935) and after the war, since the 1946 statistical figure is for 1939, prior to the war.
The first year in the Almanac where an after-war tabulation of the Jewish population is determined is in 1949. Here the World Almanac states on the authority of the American Jewish Committee that the World Jewish Population in 1947 is 11,266,600. This is a sizable drop from before the war. Let's do the math:
1939: 15,688,259
1947: 11,266,600
----------------
4,421,659
This is odd: 4,421,659 does not equal 6 million. It is 1.6 million less. Then why do the Jews say 6 million perished?
But wait, a very strange discrepancy occurs in the almanacs for 1946 and 1949 as they state their respective 1939 figures:
1949/1939: 16,643,210
1946/1939: 15,688,259
----------------
954,951 = around 1 million
So, when the AJC (or anyone else using the same statistics) calculated WWII Jewish losses using the 1949 figures, they would be about 1 million higher than before.
How did they arive at these two different figures? If we use the higher 1939 WJP number, then the total difference pre/post war is 5.4 million. I guess 5.4 is close enough to 6 million to call it 6 million
Originally posted by DaesDaemar
reply to post by TTAA2012
You can check all this out yourself.
The above table shows that the figure of 15,688,259 in the World Almanac of 1946 is really for the year 1939. Thus one must not conclude that the Jewish population was the same before the war (1935) and after the war, since the 1946 statistical figure is for 1939, prior to the war.
The first year in the Almanac where an after-war tabulation of the Jewish population is determined is in 1949. Here the World Almanac states on the authority of the American Jewish Committee that the World Jewish Population in 1947 is 11,266,600. This is a sizable drop from before the war. Let's do the math:
1939: 15,688,259
1947: 11,266,600
----------------
4,421,659
This is odd: 4,421,659 does not equal 6 million. It is 1.6 million less. Then why do the Jews say 6 million perished?
But wait, a very strange discrepancy occurs in the almanacs for 1946 and 1949 as they state their respective 1939 figures:
1949/1939: 16,643,210
1946/1939: 15,688,259
----------------
954,951 = around 1 million
So, when the AJC (or anyone else using the same statistics) calculated WWII Jewish losses using the 1949 figures, they would be about 1 million higher than before.
How did they arive at these two different figures? If we use the higher 1939 WJP number, then the total difference pre/post war is 5.4 million. I guess 5.4 is close enough to 6 million to call it 6 million
source
The USSR, by comparison, lost over 23 million people. This is over 38% of all casualties, where is your cry for the poor Soviets? Or how about Poland, they lost around 6 million, 90% civilian?
source
Originally posted by gladtobehere
reply to post by Augustine62
This is a bizarre premise, that "there is no Palestine".
There absolutely WAS a Palestine before izrael wiped it off the face of the Earth:
Youll notice that its the "PALESTINE Royal Commission Report".
That it had definite borders.
In-fact, izrael never existed prior to 1947. Regardless of Biblical mention, where was it? Where were its borders?
You wont be able to tell me because unlike Palestine, it had no borders, it didnt exist...
edit on 25-9-2012 by gladtobehere because: (no reason given)
Originally posted by TTAA2012
Originally posted by DaesDaemar
reply to post by TTAA2012
You can check all this out yourself.
The above table shows that the figure of 15,688,259 in the World Almanac of 1946 is really for the year 1939. Thus one must not conclude that the Jewish population was the same before the war (1935) and after the war, since the 1946 statistical figure is for 1939, prior to the war.
The first year in the Almanac where an after-war tabulation of the Jewish population is determined is in 1949. Here the World Almanac states on the authority of the American Jewish Committee that the World Jewish Population in 1947 is 11,266,600. This is a sizable drop from before the war. Let's do the math:
1939: 15,688,259
1947: 11,266,600
----------------
4,421,659
This is odd: 4,421,659 does not equal 6 million. It is 1.6 million less. Then why do the Jews say 6 million perished?
But wait, a very strange discrepancy occurs in the almanacs for 1946 and 1949 as they state their respective 1939 figures:
1949/1939: 16,643,210
1946/1939: 15,688,259
----------------
954,951 = around 1 million
So, when the AJC (or anyone else using the same statistics) calculated WWII Jewish losses using the 1949 figures, they would be about 1 million higher than before.
How did they arive at these two different figures? If we use the higher 1939 WJP number, then the total difference pre/post war is 5.4 million. I guess 5.4 is close enough to 6 million to call it 6 million
source
The USSR, by comparison, lost over 23 million people. This is over 38% of all casualties, where is your cry for the poor Soviets? Or how about Poland, they lost around 6 million, 90% civilian?
source
A neo-Nazi blog? Really?
As far as everyone else who died I feel bad for them, as I feel terrible for any human being who dies prematurely, but this thread isn't about WWII now is it?edit on 9/25/2012 by TTAA2012 because: (no reason given)
Originally posted by polyphemus75
reply to post by Augustine62
I signed up just to let you know that I appreciate your defense of the truth! I notice there is a lot of hate towards Israel and the Jews on ATS. Ahmadinejad is the one threatening to wipe Israel off the map! I used to wonder how the world and Germans could let the Holocaust and WWII happen, well, now, I know, the media appeases these insane leaders, they try to find good in the most vile of men, but the fact is, they are evil! The people who defend Ahmadinejad are the kind of people that say Jeffery Dahmer was kind because he drugged his victims before he ate them! God protect Israel and allow those whom seek to destroy her come to know You, for they know not what they do, they have been driven insane by their hatred!
Originally posted by penninja
reply to post by LostPassword
The fact is, Iran is not an empire with bases and wars around the world.
It isn't?
It is a Theocracy. It is a Theocracy of the Islamic faith
Riddle me this: Are there more Mosques or us Military bases in the world?
If you have never played the game "Civilization" you should try it one day, global conquest can be achieved by a variety of mechanics, war and culture topping the list of course (i'll tell you a secret before you play "The cultural victory is cheaper and easier")