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Originally posted by cenpuppie
Forced integration of the different cultures was forced in public venues because Uncle Sam wanted our money,
Originally posted by cenpuppie
reply to post by Indigo5
Open your eyes and do some googling. Read the piece objectively which you failed to do. You already have your mind made up and didn't bother to read what was written why don't you read those two landmark civil right cases. Read and learn, most of what you learned in school is fuzzy logic, offensive ain't it huh?
Imagine how i felt as a black person when i realized this. It wasn't about life, liberty, and the pursuit of happiness because if it was, the equal protection would have been used.
No, the gov't said we are forcing you to integrate because it will interfere will interstate commerce.
Why did the framers use the words “regulation of commerce” that was understood by everyone to mean only duties and imposts on imports of consumable goods if there was an additional power desired to be invested in Congress that could effect domestic business?
The answer should be obvious: Taxes had a dual purpose, 1) to raise revenue and 2) to regulate commerce. In other words, the regulation of commerce between the States never had anything to do with legislative powers over domestic industry but everything to do with protecting or encouraging manufactures through taxation of imports
Its power is “to regulate commerce between the States,” and the attempts now made during every session of Congress to carry the implications of that power beyond the utmost boundaries of reasonable and honest inference show that the only limits likely to be observed by politicians are those set by the good sense and conservative temper of the country. The proposed Federal legislation with regard to the regulation of child labor affords a striking example. If the power to regulate commerce between the States can be stretched to include the regulation of labor in mills and factories, it can be made to embrace every particular of the industrial organization and action of the country. The only limitations Congress would observe, should the Supreme Court assent to such obviously absurd extravagancies of interpretation, would be the limitations of opinion and of circumstance.
Originally posted by cenpuppie
Open your eyes and do some googling.
Originally posted by cenpuppie
The government will give out lowest bid contracts to private companies to provide health insurance for those without health insurance, the sick, and the poor.
And if you're healthy or don't want health insurance (i can see why someone homeless wouldn't have it or a recent legal immigrant) you get penalized and fined.
Let's think about this. How is "you" TAKING my money going to help me find some coverage, oh that's right.. you just want my money after all.
Corners will be cut to keep profit margins high, remember that the contracts was made to get money on behalf of the bidder
Your going to have a lessening of medical standards, procedures, and a dilution of the already powerful but influential medical sector.
Big Pharma and Obamacare go hand and hand. GSK can pump out some "wonder" drug (like they do now) that's cheap to manufacturer, charge the government a premium for it's production and will still cut a profit because more than likely, you'd still have to pay for that drug (free samples don't last that long, no sorry). Here is a news article for some light reading www.newsmax.com
With Obamacare, Uncle Sam can literally decided what you do and don't eat.
If the government deems a certain food as "good" and "healthy" they can decide that only those foods are available for the public to eat, see where i am going.
Originally posted by VictorVonDoom
Of course, the Commerce Clause argument fails to support Obamacare on one simple, logical point. If I don't buy something, then no commerce has taken place, hence nothing to regulate.
Originally posted by cenpuppie
reply to post by DJM8507
Nope. I never said that. What i did say was that the government forced it on the masses for economic reasons. If they didn't then those two cases would have used the equal protection clause.
Originally posted by habitforming
Originally posted by cenpuppie
reply to post by DJM8507
Nope. I never said that. What i did say was that the government forced it on the masses for economic reasons. If they didn't then those two cases would have used the equal protection clause.
What are you talking about?
It was the government STOPPING segregation that ended segregation. They did not force anything on anyone. They put an end to just that. White people with all the money and all the power were perfectly happy to just keep the other races down because the law allowed them to.
Suddenly they had to be racist on their own and you say it was something forced on someone?
Originally posted by ButterCookie
Originally posted by VictorVonDoom
Of course, the Commerce Clause argument fails to support Obamacare on one simple, logical point. If I don't buy something, then no commerce has taken place, hence nothing to regulate.
You have to understand how the commerce clause works. If commercial activity between the states is interrupted by the sale of, or rather the LACK of sale of a product, the commerce clause is allowed to kick in.
commerce - an interchange of goods or commodities, especially on a large scale between different countries (foreign commerce) or between different parts of the same country (domestic commerce); trade; business.
Article I, Section 8, Clause 3:
[The Congress shall have Power] To regulate Commerce with foreign Nations, and among the several States, and with the Indian tribes;
Originally posted by ButterCookie
Being 'racist' is not illegal. I am black.
Originally posted by DJM8507
So are you saying you preferred segregation?
If not, then what would been the other means of achieving the equality that civil rights leaders fought for?
Originally posted by ButterCookie
Originally posted by VictorVonDoom
Of course, the Commerce Clause argument fails to support Obamacare on one simple, logical point. If I don't buy something, then no commerce has taken place, hence nothing to regulate.
You have to understand how the commerce clause works. If commercial activity between the states is interrupted by the sale of, or rather the LACK of sale of a product, the commerce clause is allowed to kick in.