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The right of the people to be secure in their persons, houses, papers, and effects, against unreasonable searches and seizures, shall not be violated, and no Warrants shall issue, but upon probable cause, supported by Oath or affirmation, and particularly describing the place to be searched, and the persons or things to be seized.
In all criminal prosecutions, the accused shall enjoy the right to a speedy and public trial, by an impartial jury of the State and district wherein the crime shall have been committed, which district shall have been previously ascertained by law, and to be informed of the nature and cause of the accusation; to be confronted with the witnesses against him; to have compulsory process for obtaining witnesses in his favor, and to have the Assistance of Counsel for his defence.
now do you see how this could be come not so good for we that want to say the GOV is out of control, for right there that sentence would make me a belligerent, do you get it now?
The key phrase, according to my reading, is: “A person who was a part of or substantially supported […] associated forces that are engaged in hostilities against the United States or its coalition partners.” With Libya, we saw Obama select a definition of “hostilities” from the War Powers Act that fit his preference for not seeking authorization for military action from Congress. Political protests are disruptive and hostile by definition, so what’s to prevent a President (Obama or future) from twisting this language to detain political protesters in the same way Obama twisted the language of the War Powers Act? Similar questions ned to be asked of other language in this section, e.g. “substantially supported,” “associated forces.”
Originally posted by Xcathdra
reply to post by Counttrarian
1031 establishes who qualifies - namely al queida / taliban / terrorists supporters etc.
1032 defines the authority / scope of the military involvement. It specifically address US Citizens, stating they are not subject to this law or military action.
1033 again specifically deals with non US citizens.
Supreme Court rulings have made it clear US citizens are not subject to the UCMJ, they cannot be removed from the civilian side of the court system, and their civil rights cannot be abridged, even in the case of National Security (Jose Padilla / Hamdi vs. Rumsfeld, Hamden Vs. Rumsfeld, The Military comission acts of 2006, 2008 and 2009, patriot act).
Differences in interpretation aside people should contact their reps and voice their opinions / concerns or support. Get involved to ensure your voice is heard.
I would say we are nowhere near a "war" on American soil. So why do they need this new power now?
Originally posted by TheRedneck
reply to post by artfuldodger
Reading your post I can only believe you are unfamiliar with the scope of the Constitution and the military.
The US Constitution applies to US citizens and in some cases legal residents. It does not apply to the French, or the Spanish, or the Germans, or the Russians, just as their Constitution and laws do not apply to Americans in America.
Military jurisdiction is over battlefields. That is what martial law is: military rule placed into the country because of an act of war or battle. I can think of nothing sillier than believing there is an opportunity to enforce civil or common law during a firefight in a battlefield situation. People die in war; that is why it is a thing to be avoided whenever possible.
Even under martial law, there are courts: military courts. They do not have the same procedures as civil or criminal courts, and they do not operate like civil or criminal courts. Judgment can be summary, meaning little evidence is needed, and appeals are extremely rare. Rights of the accused are curtailed, and punishments can be severe. All this is necessary in a war situation.
A veteran could give you a much more exact description of a military tribunal than I am able to.
Which controls when? In the United States, military action is only during a declared period of martial law. If that happens, and this bill is not in any way required to make such a declaration happen, your rights under the Constitution are gone. You are under the jurisdiction of the military. If you are in a foreign country, and there is military action taking place, you may well be under military jurisdiction. You might even be placed under a foreign military jurisdiction!
That is why the military is so vital. Those rights we take so seriously are only able to be exercised because they are specified in the US Constitution we live under. It wasn't all that far back in history when a word form a king or a ruler could send you to the gallows without proof, evidence, or even a chance to speak out. If the USA is invaded by another country, we are right back to might makes right.
TheRedneck