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I am also interested in the fact that so little credit is given to France,Spain and the Dutch Republic who were all instrumental in the Americans gaining victory.
Originally posted by TheWalkingFox
When they were done, they wrote a document that enshrined hteor own power, excluded the youth, excluded women, excluded the poor, excluded blacks and Indians, and basically created a government system that resists all change with hte utmost of its power by design.
Text regarding noob mistakes, tips, tools and generally good advice ... here's a couple really helpful links in case no one has led you there yet ... Freshman Forum Index of Important ATS links
except of course the horrendous and black-spot of the 3/5th Compromise which dealt with freed slaves and Native Americans?
Text curious questions ... how much do you really know about the founding fathers and their "personal" lives? do you realize very few of them were "aristocrats"? many were outright poor but they were elected anyway. are you familiar with the result of the last brazen attempt to implement marxist/communist government type policies in this country and which POTUS did so? just wondering
Originally posted by Honor93
i don't understand how you can claim such when it wasn't.
of the original states, more than 1/2 were slave states (legally) and it was decided to include representation of those humans otherwise considered property.
if there was no compromise, thousands of persons (of many races) would have had -0- consideration at all.
ppl should not dismiss the simple fact that the slavery industry (right or wrong) was legally practiced throughout the region at that time (and was not exclusive to any race).
there was much deliberation of the compromise and it should be seen as the success it was, not a "black-spot" as you claim. try not to forget, until after the Civil War, slavery was a legal practice.
Originally posted by ownbestenemy
Originally posted by Honor93
i don't understand how you can claim such when it wasn't.
of the original states, more than 1/2 were slave states (legally) and it was decided to include representation of those humans otherwise considered property.
It was a complete compromise only to lure in the Southern States that were against not having such language OR the ability to count said property for purposes of Congressional seats and taxes -- it was not for "representation". Both sides win hence a compromise but that compromise was on the backs of "other Persons".
On one hand you had the (Non-Slave) States that didn't want slaves to be counted towards enumeration of representation -- and the other -- the (Slave) States that wanted them to be counted; neither wanted representation to be given.
That is why I call it a black-spot, a blemish and one that I am glad has been stricken out via the Amendment process.
if there was no compromise, thousands of persons (of many races) would have had -0- consideration at all.
ppl should not dismiss the simple fact that the slavery industry (right or wrong) was legally practiced throughout the region at that time (and was not exclusive to any race).
I make no contention that the practice was not only legal but widespread. But the fact still remained -- the Enumeration Clause gave nothing to "other Persons" a.k.a. slaves; it merely was a vehicle to allow the Slave States count their "property" for enumeration of congressional seats purposes.
there was much deliberation of the compromise and it should be seen as the success it was, not a "black-spot" as you claim. try not to forget, until after the Civil War, slavery was a legal practice.
There was great deliberation but not for the reasons you think. That "black-spot" could be seen as a precursor to the reason we ended up in the inevitable spot of the Civil War.
My original post stands.
just what do you think that phrase means?
slaves to be counted towards enumeration of representation
so, you typed this and claim it has nothing to do with it ???
it merely was a vehicle to allow the Slave States count their "property" for enumeration of congressional seats purposes.
Originally posted by Honor93
so, all the Southern states were slave states because ... you say so ???
interesting outlook.
just in case you didn't know ... when ppl refer to Kentucky or Florida for even being a Southern slave state, i know immediately just how clueless they are ...
although, i always did get a kick out of those Southen slave states named New York, New Jersey, Deleware, Maryland and Virginia ... yeppers, they sure are Southerners alright
[if you'll note, the map linked does include the time period we're discussing, all the way up to the start of the civil war in 1861 - so, no saying other states joined the party, that's just not so]
facts are that a majority of ALL states of that time were slave states so it was a "compromise" between the desires/practice of one side vs the desire/practices of another. it was NOT a north v south argument.
i never said anything about a compromise not slighting some groups on both sides
(where do you get that from?)
the compromise WAS to establish representation ... read the Federalist papers for yourself.
Is there slavery out in the open?! Minus what people randomly call "slavery" are people placed into indentured servitude against their will and agreement en mass in the United States?
i am glad slavery was made illegal but it has done NOTHING to stop the practice ... so, where did we go wrong?
except of course the horrendous and black-spot of the 3/5th Compromise which dealt with freed slaves and Native Americans?
This is not to imply that all blacks were allowed to vote; free blacks could vote (except in South Carolina) but slaves were not permitted to vote in any State. Yet in many States this was not an issue, for many worked to end slavery during and after the American Revolution. Although Great Britain had prohibited the abolition of slavery in the Colonies before the Revolution, [15] as independent States they were free to end slavery – as occurred in Pennsylvania, Massachusetts, Connecticut, Rhode Island, Vermont, New Hampshire, and New York. [16] Additionally, blacks in many early States not only had the right to vote but also the right to hold office.
i never said anything about a compromise not slighting some groups on both sides
(where do you get that from?)
the compromise WAS to establish representation ... read the Federalist papers for yourself.
again, the 'mood' about slavery wasn't even a consideration during the crafting of the Constitution or the engagement of the CWar for that matter.
but the feeling and mood was well implanted within certain states in regards to the stances taken
and if you mean representation to the slaves themselves, well of course not.
The compromise was surely not to give representation.
I understand everything I typed and honestly I was cheering for you in defense (maybe not completely vocally) in the thread that was calling for direct democracy -- but right now, I am unsure what to think. First -- cute little emoticons are annoying and immature. Second the Enumeration Compromise wasn't pretty and was a black mark on not only the Constitution but the Declaration of Independence.
The "savior" of Individual Rights held slaves yet was telling us all that "all men were created equal". Go figure. Real champion there. Yet the person labeled as a puppet of the Crown and an aristocrat; John Adams spoke out vehemently and strongly against slave ownership and in fact never owned one. Go figure that Jefferson is held in high regard. Trust me, I am no straying from the topic.
------------------
Just so I know where you are coming from -- The Enumeration Clause (3/5 Compromise) was put into place so that slaves and everyone else was represented in Congress? Is this what you are saying?!
try to keep in mind, even in this passage, the "South" referenced is the leader of the movement, South Carolina ... who at the time were already planning their secession.
Lincoln's election made South Carolina's secession from the Union a foregone conclusion. The state had long been waiting for an event that would unite the South against the antislavery forces. Once the election returns were certain, a special South Carolina convention declared "that the Union now subsisting between South Carolina and other states under the name of the "United States of America' is hereby dissolved." By February 1, 1861, six more Southern states had seceded. On February 7, the seven states adopted a provisional constitution for the Confederate States of America. The remaining southern states as yet remained in the Union.
Less than a month later, on March 4, 1861, Abraham Lincoln was sworn in as president of the United States. In his inaugural address, he refused to recognize the secession, considering it "legally void." His speech closed with a plea for restoration of the bonds of union. But the South turned deaf ears, and on April 12, guns opened fire on the federal troops stationed at Fort Sumter in the Charleston, South Carolina, harbor. A war had begun in which more Americans would die than in any other conflict before or since.
Originally posted by Honor93
Originally posted by theovermensch
reply to post by Honor93
I didnt compare the two at all. My point is that some of the most common arguments used against OWS by members of the Tea Party are invalid.
nah, this statement wouldn't allude to such a thing ...
nope, no comparison there at all
I dont think OWS is the answer but I think it will lead to the answer.They are on the right track at least. You Tea Party Patriots have been duped.
and for the record, the OWS is making movements toward creating a political party
(not just talking about it)
OWS forummsm
The time is more than ripe to start an OWS political party, have a national convention, and make an impact on local, state and national politics in 2012. Get in out of the cold and start organizing!
Zucotti park speaker
previously discussed ATS link
now that the truth is out there, can we progress to a real conversation?
yes, the two movements are quite similar ... development, presentation, outcome ... one was a bit sloppier than the other but whatever, neither has the interests of the public at large even listed as a footnote on their agenda.
and, i cannot for the life of me figure out how you presume OWS is Anti-establishment ???
what are you reading or who are you talking to because you're being seriously misled.
OWS wants more government, not less. that is Pro-establishment
the TEA party ??? not much to comment on there either
to me, they're a bunch of sell-outs ... they started out well enough but then ... well, that's politics and their lack of concern for All Americans doesn't impress me one bit.
so, how exactly does any of this compare to the Founding Fathers or your mistaken perception that they "were communists" ?? please, expand on your ill informed opinion.
in this, we also agree. i was soooooo disappointed to see the TP high-jacked like it was but i'm even more disillusioned to see it happening with OWS.
Except that I believe the Tea Party was "hijacked" by the the right wing side of the "coin" and twisted even more by the MSM. The OWS isn't for more government really either they are for less banks, meaning less banks influencing government ie: negating the federal reserve.
THE next view which I shall take of the House of Representatives relates to the appointment of its members to the several States which is to be determined by the same rule with that of direct taxes.
Originally posted by theovermensch
reply to post by Quetzalcoatl12
Thanks for reading the thread. And dont side track the guy. He's rollin. Ive been doing some reading on the Three Fifths Compromise. Dont know a spec about this stuff compared to these guys. Im learning alot.edit on 2-12-2011 by theovermensch because: typo