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Originally posted by Observor
All the apostles must be in hell!
Even if this new rule for spelling and pronunciation applied only after King James published his version of the bible, quite a few non-English speaking Christians must be going to hell and I am afraid it applies to the Pope as well (although many non-Catholics think he is going to hell anyway).
In many European languages using the latin alphabet the letter 'J' is pronounced as English speakers pronounce 'Y' and in some like Spanish it is pronounced like 'H'. I haven't heard how Germans pronounce this word 'Jesus', but if they spell it exactly like that, they are bound to pronounce it 'Yesus', no getting away from it. The Spanish spell it 'Jesus' and pronounce it 'Heysoos', the correct spanish pronunciation for a word spelt that way.
But none of that matters anyway since everyone is going to someone else's hell.
Originally posted by NOTurTypical
Originally posted by jmdewey60
reply to post by WarminIndy
Jesus is not even in Revelation so it doesn't matter if every tiny bit of Revelation is metaphorical because it does not affect Jesus in the slightest.
Let's say for a moment that He is what I say He is, then that makes Him literal and what He is going to do is very literal. If you say that all of that is metaphorical, then you could also say Jesus Himself is metaphorical. You would not do that, so you must believe there is something so real in what He will do that you are deeply afraid of it.
The title of the book is "The Revelation of Jesus Christ"
If you don't think Jesus is anywhere in Revelation you're grossly mistaken, the entire book is about the revealing of Him.
Originally posted by WarminIndy
the J is the Y sound in German. (Ich spreche Deutshce)
Originally posted by jmdewey60
reply to post by NOTurTypical
No, I am not mistaken, Jesus is not a character in Revelation.
The title of the book is "The Revelation of Jesus Christ"
If you don't think Jesus is anywhere in Revelation you're grossly mistaken, the entire book is about the revealing of Him.
It is the revelation that came from Jesus giving directions to angels to tell John things which would happen.
Originally posted by Observor
Originally posted by WarminIndy
the J is the Y sound in German. (Ich spreche Deutshce)
I know that and that is what I said too. Since you speak German can you confirm how you spell and pronounce 'Jesus' in German? I have almost no knowledge of German other than a few interesting facts (like the different sounds associated with 'J' and 'V' than English speakers are used to) mentioned to me by a friend who took an introductory course in German language. I met quite a few Spanish speakers and even a 'Heysoos' or two. 'Jesus' is not an uncommon name amongst Mexican Christians
I used the word, witchcraft, in a general way to cover all esoteric and occult practices. My understanding is that Taro is based on the Hebrew alphabet. My thinking on Hebrew is that it is essentially Babylonian and so you have things like Revelation saying, Mystery Babylon.
Jesus and the people in his region and time did not conversationally speak Hebrew. It was a Babylonian science.
Why did Jesus feel more kinship with the Romans (and they with him) than he did the leaders of his own country and why did they (the Jews) consider Jesus a foreigner himself? Being named Jesus would explain that.
Where in the Bible does Jesus say he will be our God and we will be his sons?
Really? Then what is this? Revelation 21
1And I saw a new heaven and a new earth: for the first heaven and the first earth were passed away; and there was no more sea.
2And I John saw the holy city, new Jerusalem, coming down from God out of heaven, prepared as a bride adorned for her husband.
3And I heard a great voice out of heaven saying, Behold, the tabernacle of God is with men, and he will dwell with them, and they shall be his people, and God himself shall be with them, and be their God.
4And God shall wipe away all tears from their eyes; and there shall be no more death, neither sorrow, nor crying, neither shall there be any more pain: for the former things are passed away.
5And he that sat upon the throne said, Behold, I make all things new. And he said unto me, Write: for these words are true and faithful.
6And he said unto me, It is done. I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the end. I will give unto him that is athirst of the fountain of the water of life freely.
7He that overcometh shall inherit all things; and I will be his God, and he shall be my son.
8But the fearful, and unbelieving, and the abominable, and murderers, and whoremongers, and sorcerers, and idolaters, and all liars, shall have their part in the lake which burneth with fire and brimstone: which is the second death.
The Tabernacle of God with men is Immanuel, God with us. Who else in the Bible does it describe as being God with us? Jesus Christ.
What sort of evidence do you have for this? You are making an assertion that this is true because you want it to be true because it reinforces what you already believe in.
And no, hebrew is hebrew, and is the language of the old testament and hebrews as we've already addressed.
No, it is on you.
Originally posted by Praetorius
reply to post by jmdewey60
Please refer to the masoretic texts, the dead sea scrolls, and pretty much all acknowedged history by proven academics as well as modern linquists.
Unless you can offer up some evidence to the contrary, the burden of proof is upon you to disprove generally-accepted history itself.
The burden of proof (Latin: onus probandi) is the obligation to shift the accepted conclusion away from an oppositional opinion to one's own position.
The burden of proof is often associated with the Latin maxim semper necessitas probandi incumbit ei qui agit, the best translation of which seems to be: "the necessity of proof always lies with the person who lays charges."
Where in the Bible does Jesus say he will be our God and we will be his sons?
Obviously this is God saying He will be our God and we will be His sons.
Originally posted by jmdewey60
reply to post by Praetorius
What sort of evidence do you have for this? You are making an assertion that this is true because you want it to be true because it reinforces what you already believe in.
And no, hebrew is hebrew, and is the language of the old testament and hebrews as we've already addressed.
Originally posted by Praetorius
reply to post by jmdewey60
Please refer to the masoretic texts, the dead sea scrolls, and pretty much all acknowedged history by proven academics as well as modern linquists.
Unless you can offer up some evidence to the contrary, the burden of proof is upon you to disprove generally-accepted history itself.