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Originally posted by Wyn Hawks
Originally posted by Heliocentric
2% to 5% of Neanderthl influence may not sound like much, but consider this. We know through research on the Neanderthal genome, that Neanderthals had white skin and brown/blond/reddish hair (at least much of the European Neanderthal populations did).
...again - presumptions is all that is - and - at the exclusion of evidence that neanderthals used body paint... if they could make body paint, they could make hair dye...
Originally posted by Nicolas Flamel
I haven't seen this mentioned yet, but Neanderthal women's fossils show damage like Neanderthal men which is attributed to hunting mishaps. This meant that Neanderthal women hunted along with their men.
Compare this to our species, where the men usually hunted and the women usually sought plants or smaller animals. We were more hunter-gatherers than Neanderthals. This meant we could extract more resources from a given area than Neanderthals could. We out-competed them for resources.
Neanderthals were larger and needed more resources (i.e. food). Humans were smaller and also had a division of labor that allowed them to make better use of the existing resources as hunter-gatherers.
www.jstor.org...
So we have a combination of things happening at once:
1. We were better at extracting resources from the same amount of land.
2. Some interbreeding.
3. We had better technology.
4. Neanderthals were specialized to a ice age environment, we were more adaptive.
Originally posted by Nicolas Flamel
reply to post by Heliocentric
Yes it is still an unfolding story. On Feb 23, a new article was published that states Neanderthal's were already on the way to extinction 50,000 years ago. This is before our species even arrived in Western Europe.
The article claims climatic change as the cause, meaning Neanderthals had become too specialized and could not adapt to rapid changes in the environment.
www.bbc.co.uk...
Originally posted by Nicolas Flamel
reply to post by Heliocentric
I've seen that article also. Our population was reduced to just 2,000, again because of climate change. If a large number of other hominids had shown up then, we may have gone extinct.
If Neanderthal populations were dramatically reduced when we showed up, it would have made their extinction/integration easier.
The article is very interesting in the fact that all we need is 2,000 humans to start populating an entire planet.
Originally posted by Mijamija
I am curious about the fertility of modern man compared to Neanderthal fertility. I read somewhere once that perhaps it has to do with blood type incompatibility.
I will have to dig for the info, but the basic idea was neanderthal was type o neg and sub Saharan man was not.
So when ever interbreeding occurred the type o neg females died due to rh incompatibility.
Over time this would decrease Neanderthal populations, was what the article claimed. Is that even a possibility?
I am not good at understanding genetics so I have no clue if this is junk or valid scientific thought, but I just want to know where the heck my o neg blood came from!!!
Originally posted by Mijamija
Thanks for the explanation! That helps a lot, I wonder if this kind of inbreeding happened on a large enough level that it could be the reason why nethanderthal died out? I'd be really interested to see more concerning the fertility of Neanderthal versus man.
Originally posted by Mijamija
reply to post by HappyBunny
That is really fascinating to me because as far as I can tell my two main bloodlines on my dads side are welsh and Mexican. Now the Mexican bloodline supposedly was of Spanish and French origin, I am pretty sure that means basque, but I do not have solid proof, just family lore to back it up.
The welsh is pretty strong and we have the auburn hair and pale skin, I get my o neg supposedly from the "Mexican" bloodline but I always wondered how that was possible if it wasn't also somewhere in the welsh side as well, maybe further back than our family knows?
Again, not too good with genetics but really interesting stuff, and if Neanderthal was indeed o neg and isolated to certain areas such as the basque region and wales wouldn't that explain a higher % of o neg? Arent there mountains in those areas that form a natural buffer where it would be easier to isolate ones self?
Makes me curious about other remote locations in Europe like the alps.....I wonder if o neg would be found in a higher % in that region, or perhaps it was too cold in those mountains for Neanderthal to have settled?