It looks like you're using an Ad Blocker.
Please white-list or disable AboveTopSecret.com in your ad-blocking tool.
Thank you.
Some features of ATS will be disabled while you continue to use an ad-blocker.
That’s because the articles you cite (Art. 44 and 45) are in pursuance of Article 43, and are therefore unrelated to Article 42, since 42 and 43 are two distinct types of military action.
Originally posted by Whereweheaded
If you read further, in your very own source, references the reverting back to Article 43. ... Also, note that in Article 45, suggests in order for Article 45 to be enacted, it mandates the Article 43 must be adhered
Originally posted by ModernAcademia
They are attacking Libya with many civilian casualties to protect the civilians
Originally posted by aptness
That’s because the articles you cite (Art. 44 and 45) are in pursuance of Article 43, and are therefore unrelated to Article 42, since 42 and 43 are two distinct types of military action.
Originally posted by Whereweheaded
If you read further, in your very own source, references the reverting back to Article 43. ... Also, note that in Article 45, suggests in order for Article 45 to be enacted, it mandates the Article 43 must be adhered
Article 43 is for a permanent UN force, on the other hand Article 42 is for “the use of force by a peacekeeping operation, multinational forces or interventions by regional organizations,” as explained by the UN source. The current military action underway is an Article 42 action.
Article 43 is not controlling in this circumstance, so neither 44 or 45 apply.
Article 42 of the Charter was not invoked in any decision of the Council. Participants in the Council pro- ceedings did refer to the Article both explicitly34 and implicitly3 ’ in debating the question whether the Council should decide to use force under Chapter VII of the Charter.
I’m not sure what you mean, since I am aptness and I have not seen, much less wrote, the quote you cited. But I can clarify the Article 42 question, sure.
Originally posted by Whereweheaded
i don't know what source you are using, if you could clarify that would be great, but using the source form aptness, Article 42 :
Art. 41 — The Security Council may decide what measures not involving the use of armed force are to be employed to give effect to its decisions, and it may call upon the Members of the United Nations to apply such measures. These may include complete or partial interruption of economic relations and of rail, sea, air, postal, telegraphic, radio, and other means of communication, and the severance of diplomatic relations.
Art. 42 — Should the Security Council consider that measures provided for in Article 41 would be inadequate or have proved to be inadequate, it may take such action by air, sea, or land forces as may be necessary to maintain or restore international peace and security. Such action may include demonstrations, blockade, and other operations by air, sea, or land forces of Members of the United Nations.
Like I said I don’t know whose quote is that you have attributed to ‘aptness,’ but it isn’t mine. Regarding your question, Article 42 doesn’t require additional ratification, unlike Article 43 that you have pointed out.
This would suggest that Article 42 was never signed wouldn't it?
Originally posted by buddha
They set up a no fly zone.
and the first thing they do is
Attack vehicles and tanks?
They have no right to do any of this.
America is Terrorising the world.
Originally posted by ProtoplasmicTraveler
reply to post by TinfoilTP
The confusion poster heaping scorn and derision on the concerned…check
The anti-conspiracy poster adding nothing of relevance or fact…check
The look to the false left/right divide political process for a future solution…check
The pseudo intellectual trying to make himself appear more intelligent by trying to make others appear less…check
I could go on, but let’s face it; this is a game that ends not in checkmate but stalemate.
But you really already knew that didn’t you?
edit on 21/3/11 by ProtoplasmicTraveler because: (no reason given)
That’s in 22 USC 287d, that you yourself have cited here and here.
Originally posted by Whereweheaded
Using your source I understand what you are saying. But i haven't seen where it states under the Article 42 or any other, that allows for the POTUS to unilaterally maneuver around Congressional approval.
The President is authorized to negotiate a special agreement or agreements with the Security Council which shall be subject to the approval of the Congress by appropriate Act or joint resolution, providing for the numbers and types of armed forces, their degree of readiness and general location, and the nature of facilities and assistance, including rights of passage, to be made available to the Security Council on its call for the purpose of maintaining international peace and security in accordance with article 43 of said Charter. The President shall not be deemed to require the authorization of the Congress to make available to the Security Council on its call in order to take action under article 42 of said Charter ...
Originally posted by II HAL II
So the Libyan army moving and pounding towns didn't happen?
Originally posted by aptness
That’s in 22 USC 287d, that you yourself have cited here and here.
Originally posted by Whereweheaded
Using your source I understand what you are saying. But i haven't seen where it states under the Article 42 or any other, that allows for the POTUS to unilaterally maneuver around Congressional approval.
Here is the pertinent language of the statute, with the emphasizes on the Article 42 question—
The President is authorized to negotiate a special agreement or agreements with the Security Council which shall be subject to the approval of the Congress by appropriate Act or joint resolution, providing for the numbers and types of armed forces, their degree of readiness and general location, and the nature of facilities and assistance, including rights of passage, to be made available to the Security Council on its call for the purpose of maintaining international peace and security in accordance with article 43 of said Charter. The President shall not be deemed to require the authorization of the Congress to make available to the Security Council on its call in order to take action under article 42 of said Charter ...
As I understand the Charter, a state is not obliged to act militarily unless it has concluded a "special agreement" with the Security Council under Article 43. The United States has not signed such an agreement -- and could not without Congressional approval (22 United States Code, 287d).
Every post, you keep saying the same thing, that you can in fact prove blah blah blah....but I still havent seen this alleged evidence? Further, I highly recommend you re-read the US Constitution. You openly admitted your not from the US, and don't have the fundamental understanding of why our ( the US ) founding fathers, implemented the Constitution to begin with. Our constitution is drastically different than you abide by, ( or maybe you dont )? The purpose of ours was to separate ourselves from the Kings rule. The letters from the founding fathers go into detail about their perspective. And then depicts the reasons and the need for the BOR.
our nation's behavior, my nation's behavior, our nation's behaviors in this regard puts us all at risk, a risk for no gain, a risk no universally recognized ligitimate group within Libya asked us to undertake with such murderous and destructive resolve. edit on 21/3/11 by ProtoplasmicTraveler because: (no reason given)
I have contributed volumes of information on the subject of the Constitution to the site and prompted some of the best research you will see anywhere on it.
You want to ignore the real issue of the war to argue the constitutionality of it while you don't even understand what the constitution is or the context and for what purpose it was actually created.
In regards to Libya, we do agree that Libya, is just another illegal war to allow the mighty dollar to thrive for the war profiteers.