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Originally posted by Bachrk
Don't males start out as females in the womb?
Yes I know slightly off actual topic.
From the moment of fertilisation, the embryo grows as the cells of the fertilised egg multiply. However, there is a problem. How can the DNA be read if the materials needed to read it have not yet been produced? The answer is that they are provided by the mother in the form of mRNA and proteins. The early stages of development are controlled directly by the mother's genotype for about the first three weeks, in humans, after which the embryo's DNA takes over.
At eight weeks most of the features of the adult are visible, when it is referred to as a fetus. During the first few weeks, it is neither male nor female. However, a small group of cells, called the "indifferent gonads" begin to form, that are capable of becoming ovaries or testicles. At the same time, other internal features of both sexes develop, the Mullerian (female) ducts and the Wolffian (male) ducts.
www.gender.org.uk...
Originally posted by skischoow
is it possible that we as a whole species is a mixed genetic group of several different hominids that formed humans that was later influenced by different homo sapiens, ex. neanderthals, theirfore being a hybrid species?
we are now more than ever intertwined
Originally posted by sapien82
reply to post by Kailassa
I remember from physiology at uni that fetus start out with both male and female genes and then depending which develops
through the wolfian gland , check spelling !
I dont think the gender is determined for few weeks. It is neither male nor female as the sexual organs are still developing.
Originally posted by Bachrk
Don't males start out as females in the womb?
Yes I know slightly off actual topic.
Originally posted by sapien82
What id like to know more about or see some serious study in , is the role played by hallucinogenic plants and fungi , and their effect on human evolution , particularly on the brain and their role in advancing our species
Originally posted by ElectricUniverse
reply to post by SLAYER69
There is one thing that has always bothered me, and that is the claim, or ASSumptions made by early scholars, and which today's scholars don't want to revise, that ancient men were all covered in hair to make them look like more primitive, not to mention more "ape like".
But what if they were not all covered in hair? We all know that to this day there are people who have more hair in their bodies than others, but the ASSumption is always that ancient men, and even women were ALL covered in hair.