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Where in your opinion is the capital of Palestine ?
Like any sensible people, they moved where there were good resources; where there were already people.
The claim that it was "a land without a people" is just a frankly racist fairy tale
Originally posted by dontreally
I would recommend you read 'from time immemorial'. Theres much information that is completely irrefutable in that book that blows the lid off of todays common perception.
Originally posted by Eliad
As long as you apply the same criticism towards anything you read, otherwise propaganda is just a name for something you disagree with.
Originally posted by Eliad
Now a days there's hardly anything that can't be classified as propaganda, the trick is to take bits of info from all sources and put the puzzle pieces together yourself.
Originally posted by Eliad
reply to post by TheWalkingFox
Millions? Where did that number come from?
I've mentioned it several times in other posts, but apparently not in this one- The numbers in all the books and studies, both recent and old, range from 50,000 to 400,000, if I remember correctly, so you might think this is a racist fairy tale, while you're being sold an opposing fairy tale.
So instead of going into into fairy tales I think what's more important is that it was *believed* to have been uninhabited, whether it was that, or not, and that's what's made it a good choice.
Weren't most of the Jewish lands stretched on the shoreline, which is the most infertile land?
I'm going to need some source for that claim too...
Besides, they didn't just move there, they purchased lands, makes sense that they'd be sold the #ty ones, and not the ones that make profit, no?
I agree, but while the fairy tale talks about the early 20th century, I'm talking about the early and mid 19th century which effected the perception of what Palestine is.. Mark Twain's book demonstrates that very well.
Make sure it is not you who is being told a fairy tale.. Millions living in Palestine in the 19th century? A bit far fetched.
411,000 in 1860, 738,000 in 1914
I find it amusing that you ask for dsources while providing none of your own. So, here's a bibliography for my information:
That's really the stupidest argument I've ever seen made on ATS, Eliad. "The actual reality of hte matter doesn't matter, it's what people wanted to believe that counted!"
The place was populated. It was obviously populated. The Zionists of the time acknowledged this fact. The British acknowledged it.
which counter to your claim is prime farming land
Cultivation was based mainly in the northern coastal plains, the hills of the interior, and the upper Jordan Valley
They purchased land which was mostly semi-arid, although much had been rendered untillable by deforestation, soil erosion and neglect.[2] They set about clearing rocky fields, constructing terraces, draining swampland, reforesting, counteracting soil erosion, and washing salty land.
Look up ANYTHING regarding the partition plan, Eliad.
They were sold land initially, but none of them were idiotic enough to want to buy worthless land. Give them some credit.
with your assumption that Jews are all naive helpless idiots living in a state of perpetual victimhood.
Though, Mark Twain's account of the place may have accounted for why so few American Jews emigrated.
I was referring to the period prior to ethnic cleansing, not the 19th century.
However, given that you're trying to push a claim of fifty thousand...
411,000 in 1860, 738,000 in 1914, 689,000 in 1918 (WW1 followed by famineand locust plague; they actually beat the locusts with dynamite). By 1940, the population was 1,086,000 according to the British.
Originally posted by dontreally
Again, please do not assume before reading it, since already you seem very prejudiced against the Jews, or at the very least, sensitive to the Arab cause.
Originally posted by Eliad
reply to post by TheWalkingFox
411,000 in 1860, 738,000 in 1914
411,000. So.. Not millions?
400,000 is a lot of people on the individual scale, but from a larger perspective it means the land was populated at about the same density as the Solomon islands..
At any rate I tend to agree with that number.
I find it amusing that you just copied a bibliography from a page in Wikipedia (and put a lot of effort into it, it seems), or some other web article, instead of simply providing me with the page itself so I could read it.
50,000 comes from an essay I read of some guy claiming he translated a latin book from the 17th century. Needless to say his claims were easily refuted. 400,000 comes from Roberto Bechi, Joan Peters, and many other historians.
You were talking about millions, I just tried showing you that the numbers vary from historian to historian, and that "millions" is probably an exaggeration.
My sources are pretty much the same as yours- Wikipedia, forums, etc. I'm not obsessed with the subject, so I'd rather be reading War and Peace then waste my time reading a whole bunch of "This is why Palestine was empty/full" books...
Well, we might just have to agree to disagree on this one. It's real easy to judge history 150 years later, knowing what we know today, with the world being what it is today, all defined and bordered, but were we to live in the same era as them, we might have seen things differently.
After a visit to Palestine in 1891, Ahad Ha'am wrote:
From abroad, we are accustomed to believe that Eretz Israel is presently almost totally desolate, an uncultivated desert, and that anyone wishing to buy land there can come and buy all he wants. But in truth it is not so.
They knew it was populated, but they all believed it was sparsely populated.. We're talking about the early to mid 19th century.. A time where there was a total of about 300,000 people in Palestine, Arabs and Jews. This might have been a misconception, and it might have been true, we'll never know,
but what's important is that whoever decided Israel was a good choice didn't think the native population would be a problem.
This was true, by the way, during the first waves of immigration Jews and Arabs coexisted peacefully and the Jews had a lot of respect for their Arab counterparts.
which counter to your claim is prime farming land
Cultivation was based mainly in the northern coastal plains, the hills of the interior, and the upper Jordan Valley
And also-
They purchased land which was mostly semi-arid, although much had been rendered untillable by deforestation, soil erosion and neglect.[2] They set about clearing rocky fields, constructing terraces, draining swampland, reforesting, counteracting soil erosion, and washing salty land.
Which means they did buy the #ty lands, at least to some extent...
But we weren't talking about the partition plan, we were talking about where the Jews moved in to settle, you keep changing subjects.
You want to debate the partition plan? All I've read is that the Arabs opposed because the Jews got 55% of the land while they were 30% of the population,
and that the opposite of all you said is the truth- The Jews got all the #ty lands, including the Negev and southern shoreline, and the Arabs got all the fertile lands of the Galilee and Judea...
What are your sources? The info on Wiki on agriculture in Israel clearly shows you're wrong.
Who's feeding you all this information?
Weren't idiots, they just didn't have much choice, it was either that or not settling..
Getting bored of you trying to make me seem like some kind of an idiot..
Yup, that's exactly what I said.
The book might even be completely fictional, doesn't matter, it affected the general opinion of what Palestine was at the time..
Yes, it seems to be a pattern of yours, whenever you're having a hard time winning an argument you just change the subject to something you believe you can win.
At any rate I was clearly referring to the 19th century, so you must have misread my post.
Once again your reading comprehension skills fail you (no offence).
So in conclusion-
- We agree that there were ~400,000 people in Palestine, just not on the significance of this number.
- You seem to want to judge history based on your opinions and what we know today rather than their opinions and what they knew then.
- You seem to think Palestine being populated means it was densely populated.
- You claim the Jews got the prime farming lands although I've yet to find anything to supports that claim.
- You insist on discussing the early, mid 20th century in a debate that is centered on the 19th century.
You're talking about the 1860's
and is about on par with hte density of New Zealand
"Practically uninhabited,"
That Joan Peters?
though probably much more scholarly and accurate than Peters'
his numbers pretty much became utterly irrelevant at the end of WW2, and the breakout of war three years after that.
So what we come down to, then, is you sourcing
And the one thing all the historians agree on is that "practically uninhabited" is pretty damned inaccurate.
arguing from admitted ignorance
as you try to deride my interest and learning as being
could at least try to be informed
more informative than Joan Peters!
pick up Sari Nussibeh's biography, "Once Upon a nation."
Yep, we night have found slavery to be okay. Also okay? Walling Ukrainian Jews up in their homes then torching the place. Who are we to judge about the beliefs of the past?
Jewish immigration to the place was extremely minimal during the period you're speaking of
What happened to the other 111,000? Why does this figure keep getting smaller, Eliad?
Your response to this factual inconsistency seems to be "oops, oh well!"
You sure about that? I've only heard the opposite..
Cultivation was based mainly in the northern coastal plains, the hills of the interior, and the upper Jordan Valley
Western Galilee, also known the "Northern Coastal Plain", stretches from north of Haifa up to Rosh HaNikra on the Israel-Lebanon border.
I'm not one of those people who just off-handedly knocks Wikipedia as a reference source, but really, try to apply some intellectual rigor here.
all while trying to claim that this place was "practically uninhabited."
That's a very small fragment of the overall picture,
You are aware that the Zionist Congress asked for the Negev to be included in the Jewish part of the partition, aren't you?
The Arabs got Galilee...? The Jews got the southern coast? That's Gaza, what the hell kind of map are you looking at?
Not Joan Peters or the Israeli Embassy in London, that's who.
Would you like another list of sources, Eliad?
Getting bored of pointing out hte obvious, tell you the truth.
Yup, it is. Oh, those poor downtrodden Jews, could only get the worst land from those mean oppressive Arabs. But lo, our plucky little menorah-lighting heroes managed to "make the deserts bloom!" I know it's so 'cause the Israeli embassy in London tells me so!
From abroad, we are accustomed to believe that Eretz Israel is presently almost totally desolate, [...] But in truth it is not so. In the entire land, it is hard to find tillable land that is not already tilled; only sandy fields or stony hills, suitable at best for planting trees or vines and, even that, after considerable work and expense in clearing and preparing them--only these remain unworked, [...] And thus it is not possible to find good land for sale every day.[...] the owners of large properties as well, do not easily part with good land that has no drawbacks. [...]
Yeah, some place you didn't want to live. Read it, it'll help your argument if you want to cite it.
...A hard time? given that I've blown everything you said out of the water
And doesn't matter if you're talking about 1947, 1847, or 47 BCE, the place was never "practically uninhabited." Making such a claim just makes you a liar.
You actually offered no disclaimer on that number.
so you might think this is a racist fairy tale, while you're being sold an opposing fairy tale
In 1860; Jewish immigration to Palestine was a non-factor until after World War One, due to the Balfour Agreement.
And if you're as bad at history as you seem to be at map-reading, World War One was ever-so-slightly after 1860.
The Second Aliyah was an important and highly influential aliyah that took place between 1904 and 1914, during which approximately 40,000 Jews immigrated into Ottoman Palestine
The Arabs got Galilee...?
While you seem to be ignoring the plain fact that there was no shortage of information available to contradict the belief that Palestine was "empty" - even though you quote one such source!
40 people per square mile might not be Los Angeles, but when you only have ten thousand square miles to go around, that ends up being pretty dense in a preindustrial agricultural landscape.
In regards to the Partition plan, yes. My understanding is that when Jewish immigrants in the time frame you're talking about bought land, ir was primarily urban
While you refuse to realize that the mid-19th century is largely irrelevant to any contemporary situation;
What we have today is largely a result of the 1920's and forward.
I'm clearly more than capable of informing you
to argue a position about a situation situated in the last 20 years.
So in conclusion, maybe you should leave this subject to those of us who have invested time and study into the subject, rather than pretending occasionally looking at Ynet makes you informed.
in place that discriminated towards jews (much like Israel has against non-jews),
or in some cases there were riots by the public (probably motivated by a misplaced(?)
Nobody was FORCED to move, which is why you still find Sikh and Hindu communities in Pakistan, and Muslim communities in India.
The logic doesn't hold at all. If there are some persecuted minority in your country (for example) that flees and comes to my country (for example), where there is a persecuted minority similar to the people of your country, does that make it obligatory on you to take in this persecuted minority? Of course not, especially if that minority stayed there because they want to stay there, and consider it their home. It's always nice to help out people, but it's not an obligation. And the examples you gave (of Greece-Turkey and India-Pakistan) are good indicators. Those population transfers put a tremendous burden on the respective countries, which, in many cases they were not able to handle properly.
It WANTS to have an unrealistic ethno-religious majority in the area in some confused bid for legitimacy,
Unfortunately, we're over half a century on now, and the formerly foreign imposition is now part of the landscape of the middle east, and cannot be ignored or wished away. This doesn't mean, however, that the problem should be further exacerbated with such racially motivated ideas as "population transfer", especially with an unwilling population.
Originally posted by dontreally
reply to post by TheWalkingFox
Israel took in 800,000 exiled Jews from Arab lands, who had their property apprehended by the government.
likewise, the similarly sized Palestinian Arab population should have been embraced by the Arab countries...As was done between India and Pakistan and Turkey and Greece.
Hence, the blame is put on them.
To add to the outrage, these arabs would have been compensated. Meanwhile, those 800,000 Jews expelled from Morocco, Tunisia, Algeria, Libya, Egypt, Syria, Yemen, and Iraq, recieved NOTHING. Not a thing. Where was the sympathy for these refugees? How come most people know not a thing about it?
And btw, your analogy was horrendously irrelevant and you know it.
Forget using analogies and acknowledge that:
A) Jews were expelled from Arab lands amounting to 800,000 by the late 60s. The majority of them left between 1948-51 when persecution in those countries made it too dangerous for Jews to stay. Thus these government forced Jews to leave, and when they left, they foreited all rights to their properties, holdings, businesses etc. Many well off Sephardic Jews had to start over again when they left their ancestoral home in the Arab diaspora (some of which had a history in those lands that preddate Islam. For instance, Medina, the muslim holy city was originally a Jewish Town in the diaspora)
b) These refugees should have been exchanged, as was established between the hindus/Sikhs and muslims in India and Pakistan (an exchange lauded in the press, and completely reasonable) and the muslim turks and orthodox Greeks in Greece and Turkey. These exchanges made sense. If, lets say, the Indians agreed to accept Pakistani born Hindus and Sikhs, yet Pakistan refused to take in the oppressed muslims in India, wouldnt that be deemed unfair and unreasonable? so how come the arab league gets off red handed, without even a mention of this event in the discussion of the palestine/israeli issue? so they get to create refugees and expect Israel to take in these Jews, yet cant reciprocrate this gesture?
Even though the transJordan was originally eastern palestine, and therefore its purpose was to serve as the national home for Palestinian arabs?
The injustices are enormous, and they're almost all against the Jews.
Whats obvious here is that you havent read Joan Peters book, and if you have, you will still calumniate it because: You are CLEARLY and undoubtedly an antisemite.
This has been made abundantly clear with your rhetoric. Youre one of those buddhists who believes himself to be 'beyond good and evil',
and thus you play games with the truth for your sick demented political purposes.
Thats clear, to any educated person atleast.
Which is why you ignore my points and make use of analgoies that dont make sense to begin with, and have no coherent relation to the points ive made.
edit on 3-3-2011 by dontreally because: (no reason given)
Originally posted by Eliad