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Originally posted by saltheart foamfollower
If it took a Constitutional Amendment to make alcohol illegal, would it not also take a Constitutional Amendment to make any other substance illegal?
If none of those goons are paying any attention to the Constitution, why would a Constitutional argument hold any water? My guess is it would get ignored since it's based upon what's being ignored.
I'm not cynical, no way.
Originally posted by SmokeandShadow
That is an excellent point. Hmmmm....I wonder if this would fly as a defense in a jury trial? I'm not about to try, but would love to know.
IMO this argument is undebatable.
There is no argument against it.
Originally posted by saltheart foamfollower
reply to post by pryingopen3rdeye
Very relevant. But, as I said earlier, a city or state ban is different than a federal ban. The federal government, with the Alcohol Prohibition amendment set precedent requiring an amendment to prohibit something.
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Originally posted by saltheart foamfollower
Mod Edit - Removed attack on another member of the site
Funny, I have actually read through that link you provided before. Funny thing about the amendments added after the civil war, when you have soldiers standing over your representatives saying, SIGN THIS, kinda hard to say no.
a Brooklyn assemblyman, Felix Ortiz, has proposed a bill that would make it illegal for restaurants to use salt in the preparation of food. Period.