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I want to begin by examining several of the most common reactions among critics of this decision, none of which seems persuasive to me. Critics emphasize that the Court's ruling will produce very bad outcomes: primarily that it will severely exacerbate the problem of corporate influence in our democracy. Even if this is true, it's not really relevant. Either the First Amendment allows these speech restrictions or it doesn't. In general, a law that violates the Constitution can't be upheld because the law produces good outcomes (or because its invalidation would produce bad outcomes).
Originally posted by Kaytagg
reply to post by yellowcard
pst. Corporations aren't actually people.
Now lets look at the short version legal definition of a person: PERSON. This word is applied to men, women and children, who are called natural persons. In law, man and person are not exactly-synonymous terms. Any human being is a man, whether he be a member of society or not, whatever may be the rank he holds, or whatever may be his age, sex, &c. A person is a man considered according to the rank he holds in society, with all the rights to which the place he holds entitles him, and the duties which it imposes. 1 Bouv. Inst. n. 137. 2. It is also used to denote a corporation which is an artificial person. 1 Bl. Com. 123; 4 Bing. 669; C. 33 Eng. C. L R. 488; Wooddes. Lect. 116; Bac. Us. 57; 1 Mod. 164. 3. But when the word "Persons" is spoken of in legislative acts, natural persons will be intended, unless something appear in the context to show that it applies to artificial persons. 1 Scam. R. 178.
And the definition of a person in the Uniform Commercial Code Article 1;; Part 2;1-201: (27) "Person" means an individual, corporation, business trust, estate, trust, partnership, limited liability company, association, joint venture, government, governmental subdivision, agency, or instrumentality, public corporation, or any other legal or commercial entity.
Originally posted by Jean Paul Zodeaux
Regardless of how "person" is defined in a legal sense as opposed to the general term as applied in common usage, it is a red herring of an argument. It is irrelevant whether corporations are persons or not because no such distinction is made in the First Amendment. That Amendment does not say Congress may make no laws regarding natural born persons...it simply says the Congress may make no laws...abridging the freedom of speech.
It is pointless to argue whether or not corporations are persons as it has nothing to do with the fact that in passing the BCFR with its section 441b, Congress made a law that abridged the freedom of speech and in doing so broke their oath to uphold the Constitution. The SCOTUS upheld their oath and struck this legislation down. It is just as simple as that.
Originally posted by skunknuts
reply to post by yellowcard
Sounds like the author is scared to tackle the issue of corporations equaling person-hood. He repeatedly states he is sympathetic to that argument, but also repeatedly side-steps the issue by saying that the court would have to overturn its own precedent.
One more Obama supreme court justice, and maybe we can finally get to the heart of the issue....
Let me ask you, yellow card: If the US officially and objectively becomes a fascist state, validated by SCOTUS rulings, will you still be arguing that, technically, such and such an argument is technically 'constitutional?
The goal of a modern society should be to increase individual liberty, freedom, and to further the pursuit of happiness and self-actualization. Smart lawyers can always make smart arguments, but it's us little guys that have to deal w/ the ramifications.
Best,
Skunknuts
Originally posted by skunknuts
Originally posted by Jean Paul Zodeaux
Regardless of how "person" is defined in a legal sense as opposed to the general term as applied in common usage, it is a red herring of an argument. It is irrelevant whether corporations are persons or not because no such distinction is made in the First Amendment. That Amendment does not say Congress may make no laws regarding natural born persons...it simply says the Congress may make no laws...abridging the freedom of speech.
It is pointless to argue whether or not corporations are persons as it has nothing to do with the fact that in passing the BCFR with its section 441b, Congress made a law that abridged the freedom of speech and in doing so broke their oath to uphold the Constitution. The SCOTUS upheld their oath and struck this legislation down. It is just as simple as that.
If a corporation invents a technology that can increase its messages penetration into the subjects, err, I mean citizens, of this company, err, I mean country, what say you then?? Let's say a corporation patents a tech that persuades the average citizen as much as hearing a message by a factor of 10, 100, 1000.
Will you still sit idly by, or maybe it will be irrelevant, as 'your' 'opinion' will already be well forged...
Best,
Skunknuts
Originally posted by Jean Paul Zodeaux
Originally posted by skunknuts
Originally posted by Jean Paul Zodeaux
Regardless of how "person" is defined in a legal sense as opposed to the general term as applied in common usage, it is a red herring of an argument. It is irrelevant whether corporations are persons or not because no such distinction is made in the First Amendment. That Amendment does not say Congress may make no laws regarding natural born persons...it simply says the Congress may make no laws...abridging the freedom of speech.
It is pointless to argue whether or not corporations are persons as it has nothing to do with the fact that in passing the BCFR with its section 441b, Congress made a law that abridged the freedom of speech and in doing so broke their oath to uphold the Constitution. The SCOTUS upheld their oath and struck this legislation down. It is just as simple as that.
If a corporation invents a technology that can increase its messages penetration into the subjects, err, I mean citizens, of this company, err, I mean country, what say you then?? Let's say a corporation patents a tech that persuades the average citizen as much as hearing a message by a factor of 10, 100, 1000.
Will you still sit idly by, or maybe it will be irrelevant, as 'your' 'opinion' will already be well forged...
Best,
Skunknuts
Still you continue with hypotheticals. Could that be because your arguments have no relevance in the real world? Why do you insist in asking I and others to pretend instead of just accept reality? If your arguments are so valid why must we all pretend there is some future world in where your arguments work?
Originally posted by skunknuts
reply to post by Jean Paul Zodeaux
Sorry for trying to think ahead and see the ramifications. Ok, if you were alive during the time when SCOTUS ruled that corporations are entitled to the rights give to a person, what would have been your reaction to that activist decision?
Best,
SN
P.S. Yes, that would indeed make your aunt your uncle
Originally posted by Jean Paul Zodeaux
Originally posted by skunknuts
reply to post by Jean Paul Zodeaux
Sorry for trying to think ahead and see the ramifications. Ok, if you were alive during the time when SCOTUS ruled that corporations are entitled to the rights give to a person, what would have been your reaction to that activist decision?
Best,
SN
P.S. Yes, that would indeed make your aunt your uncle
Rights can not be given by governments. Do you even know which SCOTUS rulings you are referring to, and if you do can you supply the direct quote that shows they "gave" these rights to corporations? More pretense, is all you are offering.
Originally posted by endisnighe
reply to post by skunknuts
Incorrect on the aunt and uncle, what if she was a hermaphrodite?
Also many other situations could be involved.
And while you are thinking ahead, should we throw out the Constitution and give the President the power to over-rule Scotus decisions?
Why don't we just through the whole thing and start over?
Originally posted by Jean Paul Zodeaux
reply to post by skunknuts
Marbury v. Madison in no way granted rights to corporations and neither did the Santa Clara County ruling. What you are referring to was only dicta and not holding. You should learn the difference and come to better understand the law.
Significance:
Not being part of the court's opinion, the "person" observation did not technically—in the view of most legal historians—have any legal precedential value.[13]
However, the Supreme Court is not required by Constitution or even precedent to limit its rulings to written statements.[citation needed]
Justice William O. Douglas wrote in 1949, "the Santa Clara case becomes one of the most momentous of all our decisions.. Corporations were now armed with constitutional prerogatives."[citation needed]
Justice Hugo Black wrote "in 1886, this Court in the case of Santa Clara County v. Southern Pacific Railroad, decided for the first time that the word 'person' in the amendment did in some instances include corporations...The history of the amendment proves that the people were told that its purpose was to protect weak and helpless human beings and were not told that it was intended to remove corporations in any fashion from the control of state governments...The language of the amendment itself does not support the theory that it was passed for the benefit of corporations."[