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You are correct that it does mean that men are scoring higher on average than women. But what does that bit of data say?
That men are inherently better at math?
That women will never perform as well as them?
That SAT scores are great predictors of actual grades in college in math?
I dont want to make any assumptions here, I am curious as to why this bit of data is so significant to you.
SO WHAT? OK men may be better at mathematics, whoo hoo.. All that really means is that men can add and subtract, and divide and multiply better which has been proven though history that they indeed know how to multiply, and in many different ways.
Women score higher on English and Language skills. Does that mean that they are inherently "better" than men? NO
Both sexes have their weaknesses, and their strengths
whether or not one is better or not or inherently "more intelligent" has yet to be proven in my eyes.
Dude, maybe you're too old to know. I only recently graduated. And it was a joke. if anything, those statistics prove how much better kids cheat at. That's the truth.
Anywho, I ask again, do so explain the grammar school. Why do newer generations perform so differently than older ones?
Also, calculus can be used here. The graph marks scores per year, and each gender. There is nothing wrong here. time versus quantity. Thank you, but no, you are wrong.
And the reason that last part relates to our argument is that men and woman CAN now do pretty much each others things via technology.
you should go to page one it will make more sense the debate has evolved much more than ether sex ever will or is it devolved
i made my new avatar like it?
Now lets review calculus, shall we? if I map the graph of males over time versus their grades, this is a differentiable curve. If I replace the males with female grades, it's just as differentiable. Mapping the derivative shows the instantaneous rate of change at that moment in time. Mapping the derivative of the derivative curve is the 2nd derivative, which shows the future rates of the curve in a constant rate. The results of each curve can be compared with each other. ergo, the graph can be used in calculus. The end.
Things do not evolve in such short time. Evolution takes thousands of years to millions of years. the last change to humanity was 50,000 years ago when modern behavior began. In fact, evolution biologists agree that the larger your population, the less likely evolution occurs. genetic drift will occur, but over the course of dozens of generations. ergo, your wrong.
It could possibly be the evolution of humanity... after all, we see the evolution of the Y chromosome, and this may share information with the X chromosome, it is not to much to presume that children on the whole are getting smarter.
(Or at the very least, as you stated... better at cheating!)
very good. I like your response.
But now let's agree to end this. Because you have finally shown an open mind in that you will not deny math if it says so. So shall we agree to continue to observe the rates of change until either of us are right? Because it's going to take 2 more years, but at that time, oscillation will begin (natural distribution of intelligence).
Originally posted by Edrick
Well, you seemed to imply the only reason that women are attributed with inventions and such, is because men write the history, and have kept the contributions of women OUT of history.
I would like you to substantiate your claim.
Lise Meitner (7 or 17 November 1878 – 27 October 1968) was an Austrian-born, later Swedish physicist who worked on radioactivity and nuclear physics.[1] Meitner was part of the team that discovered nuclear fission, an achievement for which her colleague Otto Hahn was awarded the Nobel Prize. Meitner is often mentioned as one of the most glaring examples of women's scientific achievement overlooked by the Nobel committee.[2][3][4]
On November 13, 1938, Hahn met secretly with Meitner in Copenhagen. At her suggestion, Hahn and Strassmann performed further tests on a uranium product they thought was radium. When they found that it was in fact barium, they published their results in Naturwissenschaften (January 6, 1939). Simultaneously, Meitner and Frisch explained (and named) nuclear fission, using Bohr's "liquid drop" model of the nucleus; their paper appeared in Nature (February 11, 1939). The proof of fission required Meitner's and Frisch's physical insight as much as the chemical findings of Hahn and Strassmann.
But the separation of the former collaborators and Lise's scientific and actual exile led to the Nobel committee's failure to understand her part in the work. Later Hahn rationalized her exclusion and others buried her role ever deeper. The Nobel "mistake," never acknowledged, was partly rectified in 1966, when Hahn, Meitner, and Strassmann were awarded the U.S. Fermi Prize.
Originally posted by Edrick
Prove that women have had an equal contribution to science, mathematics, engineering, etc... as men.
Originally posted by Edrick
Prove that men have NOT done most all of the work to *forward* society.
is that clear enough for you?
Originally posted by Edrick
Where exactly did this argument come from?
originally posted by Illusionsaregrander But women when allowed have contributed much. One could look at what we have and say, "oh how great it all is, and all created by men," or one could look around and say, "we have only half what we could have had, had half the worlds geniuses not been denied education for a couple thousand years or better."
Originally posted by Edrick
"When Allowed" is a hilarious statement.
originally posted by Illusionsaregrander
Is it really? So, you think that the reason there were no great advances in mathematics from the European barbarian hordes prior to the Romans invading means that northern Europeans were intellectually inferior to men from the Mediterranean and Middle East? Or do you have some idea that having access to the work done by others, coupled with the ability to use writing and numerical systems created by others is a plus when doing your own work? Because if you want to make the argument that all Europeans are intellectually inferior to those from the Mediterranean area and Middle East, we will have a different sort of argument.
Originally posted by Edrick
IT sure is good that the United States was "Allowed" to separate from the British Empire, and form its own nation... oh Wait..
originally posted by Illusionsaregrander
What, precisely, does revolution have to do in any way with education and the access to it?
Originally posted by Edrick
You are presuming that women were denied access to education.
Originally posted by Edrick
While MOST ALL of humanity has been denied access to higher learning.
Originally posted by Edrick
Those that WANTED to learn, did not beg and plead at the foot of their masters, they TOOK it, and did the work themselves.
originally posted by IllusionsaregranderAnd if there are, what does this mean? Does it somehow diminish female genius, or female intellect if there are 5 male geniuses and only 4 females? Or 10 males and 8 females? Is a male with an IQ of 100 somehow better than a female with an IQ of 148, simply because there are more male geniuses? I guess I just dont see your point. What is your point?
Originally posted by Edrick
My point, is that High Intelligence is more a male specialty than a female specialty, BECAUSE women are more average in intelligence, while men are more varied in intelligence.
There are more Male Geniuses than Female Geniuses.
Originally posted by Edrick
I am arguing that Men *ON THE WHOLE* have more intellectual capability to forward civilization than women do.
Originally posted by Edrick
It was not my intention to "School" you in this topic, I was just glad that someone was finally acknowledging this fact.
Thank you.
-Edrick
Ok, so I need to prove that women have historically not been given credit for their contributions to science simply because men have had the power to give credit as they see fit. Easy.
Lise Meitner.
That would be impossible. They have not. Whether or not they COULD have is another issue.
Nor have they had anything nearly approaching equal access to education, or the right to work outside of the home. Lack of equal contribution could mean lack of ability, inherently, or it could be lack of opportunity. Which do you suppose it is?
No, actually it isnt. What does "forwarding" society mean to you?
Men by and large have gotten the glory.
They are credited with the forwarding of our technology.
But this overlooks the vast numbers of men and women that had to be relegated to "support operations" to afford this privileged class of mostly males the opportunity (leisure) to pursue philosophy, and all its offspring, math, engineering and science.
None of what we have today would have happened without all of us, male/female, leisured/working class, and it is sort of arrogant to give all the credit to those who had both talent and opportunity to sit down and make the connections.
The person who is most instrumental in creating the society we have today is the person, (or persons) whomever they were, male or female or both, who figured out how to domesticate plants. Agriculture is the one invention that made all the rest of this possible, and that person(s) is lost to us forever. I dont think we should take so narrow a view of progress that we give all the glory to those who are essentially lucky at birth.
They were. Prove they were not. I personally dont think it is even worth while to prove they were, it is such a matter or historical record that the question itself is disingenuous.
So I will place the burden of proof upon you. Either show evidence that women had access to education in maths and science equal to males throughout history, or concede the argument.
Circular argumentation. So proving there are more male geniuses proves there are more male geniuses.
Very clever. By the same logic, being an idiot is also a male specialty.
Ok, so its a given, there are more male morons and geniuses than female morons and geniuses. There are still female morons and geniuses, soooo........................what?
And, they also *ON THE WHOLE* have more intellectual capability to "reverse" civilization than women do.
Whats the bottom line here? Besides the circular argument, that there are more male geniuses, therefore there are more male geniuses, what does this mean?
Im not clear why this is pertinent.
No problem. I am not a feminist, I am a humanist. Personally, although I recognize that there is real evidence that "more males x" or "more females y" I am also aware that this is pretty meaningless information at the individual level.
And, I personally feel that it is intellectually lazy to rely on things like race, gender, etc., to make broad sweeping generalizations.
Originally posted by Edrick
By every metric we currently have to determine intelligence, men outperform women, on the whole.
The lack of an overall gender difference among Chinese students may also be a function of a cultural belief in hard work, rather than innate ability, as the basis for academic achievement. In my eighth grade survey, I found a strong belief in education and in diligence: 50% of respondents strongly agreed with the statement “there is no future without a good education,”
and 94% chose “hard work” as the most important factor for academic success. In contrast, Stevenson and colleagues (1990) found that American parents and children tended to believe that achievement in mathematics depends on innate ability.
Conclusion
Although reasons for the math-gender gap among the very best students remain unclear, the data (no mean gender-math gap among Chinese students on the College Entrance Examination)point to societal (cultural beliefs, parents expectations, rigorous national curriculum, and well-
trained teachers) conditions as the cause of the mean gender gap in the SAT-Math scores among American students.
Originally posted by Edrick
(Edit: Perhaps a better way of putting it is that men are more CAPABLE of High intelligence than women)
Well, this I will have to take issue with. Men perform better in math on SATs. That is a fact. This does not mean they outperform women in math course work. It means they test better.
Although reasons for the math-gender gap among the very best students remain unclear...
To make the leap from better performance on tests to better performance overall is unwarranted.
I am not sure about the word capable, but I accept that you are struggling to find an appropriate word to use here. I would bear in mind, however, that the same point difference, (roughly 5 points) found between males and females also exists between Europeans and Asians, in the favor of Asians. Would you argue that Asians have done more to forward civilization than Europeans?
Or do you approach race differences in IQ scores differently than you do sex differences?
Or is it possible that there are other factors playing out, and the scores may not be measuring everything they are meant to?
Edrick you are arguably one of the very best debaters ATS has ever seen as well as one of its more disciplined and intelligent minds…
However, I must now question your wisdom in such a way that pretty much defeats every last argument good bad or ugly on this thread.
It is a KNOWN fact that it is IMPOSSIBLE to ever WIN an argument with a WOMAN!
You are still my hero though!
Originally posted by Edrick
So... riddle me this...
How did you find out about this, if her contributions were kept out of history?
Nor have they had anything nearly approaching equal access to education, or the right to work outside of the home. Lack of equal contribution could mean lack of ability, inherently, or it could be lack of opportunity. Which do you suppose it is?
Originally posted by Edrick
A higher portion of MEN are drawn to these fields, regardless of the availability of education, than women.
So, take that information, incorporate it into your perspective, and recompute.
Originally posted by Edrick
Advances in scientific knowledge that aid in the survival of all humans, from agriculture to medicine to electricity to transportation.
Things that not just ANY IDIOT with reproductive organs and a pulse could accomplish.
Originally posted by Edrick
This is the same argument that Gorman91 was making.... that Einsteins wife was responsible for his contributions to Science.
Originally posted by Edrick
Are you sure you want to go down this slippery slope?
Originally posted by Edrick
Are you claiming that there was never a "Privileged" female class with access to this educational material?
Originally posted by Edrick
No, indeed, when we look at history, most of these "Privileged" women were more concerned with "Social" aspects of life, than scientific pursuits.
Originally posted by Edrick
Well lets just attribute everything to adam. (The biblical First man)
Originally posted by Edrick
Your argument suffers from a logical fallacy known as "Moving the Goalpost", an argument in which evidence presented in response to a specific claim is dismissed and some other (often greater) evidence is demanded.
Originally posted by Edrick
Well, Marie Curie (7 November 1867 – 4 July 1934)... the much lauded discoverer of Radium, was a classically educated Chemist.
At fifteen, Maria herself obtained a higher education (forbidden to girls in Poland) from a clandestine, revolving academy for women taught in private homes.
Marie argued for the elimination of additional, difficult tests given only to the female students. She also convinced the dean to provide calculus classes to the female students. Marie wanted the girls to have the tools to succeed in academia and fought tooth and nail to provide every opportunity.
Originally posted by Edrick
And that was before the "Equal Rights" movement.
Tabitha Babbit invented the Circular Saw in 1812.
The nature of the Shaker religion valued women and men equally with one another in religious leadership. All authority in the church was hierarchical, with women at the top level of that hierarchy, though at each level women and men shared equal responsibility.
Originally posted by Edrick
Lucy Stone was one of the first women in the united states to earn a collage degree, in the 1830's
Stone and Brown both took part in Oberlin's rhetoric class, but women were not allowed to speak in public, supposedly because of specific passages in the Bible which forbade it. Women studying rhetoric were required to do so by listening to the men debate.
Originally posted by Edrick
In Sparta, the Agoge was the name for an educational institution. Its origins are thought to be between the 7th and 6th century BC, for both men and women.
According to folklore agoge was introduced by the semi-mythical Spartan law-giver Lycurgus but its origins are thought to be between the 7th and 6th century BC[3][4] when the regime trained male citizens from the ages of seven to twenty-nine.[1]
Originally posted by Edrick
Do I need to continue, or have I made my point?
Originally posted by Edrick
The heights of brilliance, and the lows of brutish stupidity, are the majority domain of men.
Originally posted by Edrick
There are more Male Geniuses than Female Geniuses, THUS, men are more responsible for "Forwarding" society.
Originally posted by Edrick
It's ok if you FEEL that way... it does not make it true.
-Edrick