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Originally posted by Joey Canoli
Do you even have a clue why not?
Originally posted by Joey Canoli
Originally posted by bsbray11
So despite there being an obvious tilt, of the entire top portion of WTC2, at an obvious angle, you say there was no fulcrum.
Yup. There was a hinge point. It's obvous to anyone willing to examine videos honestly. Only a troll would refuse to.
Originally posted by Nutter
If no other force was applied, and those columns held the load from day one, where's this extra force to cause buckling/bending?
Originally posted by bsbray11
Or a link from NIST? You said they explained it, I think I already asked you to show me where.
Originally posted by Joey Canoli
There was rotation in conjunction with sink. The movement wasn't in the 9:00 direction. It was in the 7:00 direction.
Originally posted by bsbray11
Now by refusing to give me a technical definition for "hinge," are you admitting it's a word you made up and has no technical meaning whatsoever?
Originally posted by bsbray11
Rotation means circular motion. Meaning motion about a point. That point: a fulcrum.
Originally posted by Nutter
My theory is that Joey heard some structural engineer using the word "plastic hinge" and thought of a door. When in actuality a "plastic hinge" is only a term used to describe bending.
Originally posted by JIMC5499
reply to post by Nutter
I'm not taking the truther's side. I am referring to the "Rules of Evidence". Personally I believe that the planes brought down the towers. I believe there's a conspiracy here, but the majority of people are on the wrong track.
Originally posted by Joey Canoli
And at any rate, a plastic hinge - which describes bending - is exactly what the far wall was doing.
Originally posted by Swing Dangler
"""exception of WTC 7 where explosives of some sort brought that tower down."""
Originally posted by Joey Canoli
Let's use the physics defined version of fulcrum. It makes no difference to my argument.
So, where was the fulcrum?
The core or the wall?
Originally posted by Nutter
You forgot to include that bending describes compression on one side and tension on the other.
Originally posted by bsbray11
It does not matter if you want to disagree where the fulcrum was,
Originally posted by bsbray11
He was originally trying to say the tilt did not represent an asymmetrical loading condition for the global collapse to begin with. He is trying to say a tilt is somehow still a symmetrical loading condition.
Originally posted by Joey Canoli
Originally posted by bsbray11
It does not matter if you want to disagree where the fulcrum was,
Oh, but it does matter.
Originally posted by Joey Canoli
If the fulcrum is the core, then Valhall's thoughts are correct.
If you're not a troll, and admit that the fulcrum was the wall, then she's wrong.
Originally posted by Joey Canoli
Yup, only there was no fulcrum. The far side wall acted as a hinge for a few degrees, until it exceeded its capacity to hold up load, then it collapsed down.
The fulcrum is a feature of the Valhal's delusional belief that there was tilting/tension, etc.
Your memory sucks dude. Lay off the chronic.
I said the impact damage is assymetrical damage.
Originally posted by Joey Canoli
Originally posted by bsbray11
I shouldn't have to explain how that tilt created asymmetrical loading
it woud be hilarious to see you try to show that, cuz you'd then have to treat the upper portion as a rigid block too, that was incapable of being destroyed from the bottom up.
Then to the question about why the REST of the collapse was roughly symmetric, I asked why wouldn't it be, since there was no damage. You have no rebuttal for this so far.