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Elizabeth I (7 September 1533 – 24 March 1603) was Queen of England and Queen of Ireland from 17 November 1558 until her death. Sometimes called the Virgin Queen, Gloriana, or Good Queen Bess, Elizabeth was the fifth and last monarch of the Tudor dynasty.
Originally posted by dakota1s2
I don't understand your point. Are you trying to disprove the virign birth and whether the doctrine of the Trinity is valid?
Just to argue a point. There is not the word Trinity in any translation that I know of. Certainly not in the original Hebrew or Greek. There is a lot of dispute about such a thing as the Trinity among some divisions of Christianity today. I personally believe the Son is subject to the Father so I'm not sure why the idea of the Trinity is an issue.
On the virgin birth. Several times in the old testament prophecies stated birth would be by a virgin. I could look up but not inclined to do so right now.
The Virgin Birth
The Trinity
It was never mentioned by any early Church Fathers.
Originally posted by AshleyD
reply to post by pdpayne0418
The Virgin Birth
Instead of getting into the translations which is a lot of work and since it's been discussed before here many times, I'll just say this: In the Old Testament book of Isaiah, the prophecy gave a sign. The 'sign' would be that a virgin would give birth. Think about it: What kind of sign would it be for a regular young woman to give birth? That happens countless times a day.
The Trinity
It was never mentioned by any early Church Fathers.
That's not true: 1, 2, 3, etc.
Originally posted by daysofnoe
The Bible states that Mary had a husband, Joesph. So there, your translation of virgin being a young unmarried woman, is obviously not the correct one. Sloved?
Originally posted by ButterCookie
"Let US make mankind in OUR image according to OUR likings..." hmmm
Originally posted by AshleyD
reply to post by pdpayne0418
Ah, sorry. I was rushed and reading too fast. lol The virgin/trinity debate has been had around here so many times I no longer read threads as closely as I probably should because they're just the same things over and over. But, yes. You are correct. That specific passage is not in the older texts. It is a famous interpolation that skeptics of Christianity often point out.
The way I feel about that is, yes, I do get angry that they had to squeeze in a passage based on doctrine instead of simply translating the passage as is. However, if that was the only passage we have that endorses the Trinitarian doctrine, we'd be in trouble. But there is SO MUCH more in the Bible and in the writings of the early church fathers that document the early belief of the trinity. I feel skeptics who use this and only this in an attempt to debunk the historical validity of the Trinitarian doctrine are being intellectually dishonest.
They point out this famously altered passage and say, 'Ah ha! The belief in the trinity is bogus and was only added in/believed later in Christianity!' when in reality, that passage is a problem- not the Trinitarian doctrine as a whole.
By you singling out that one verse, I'm thinking that means you acknowledge all the other historical documentary evidence that validates the belief in the Trinity. In that case, why do you think this one passage outweighs everything else?