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Originally posted by adnanmuf
The Khazar were the largest country in the world and their numbers were huge they had huge armies, so even if 10% converted to Judaism then those are the Ashkenazim jews * 8 millions at present). Notice that the Khazar were known to the Arminian Historians in the 6 century as Khazar and Huns. Now the Huns were the cousins of The Goths according to Jordanes.
The Goths are known to be the Gog and Magog who tried to cross the Caucasian mountains to the south but King darius the Great prevented them by building a dam in Daryal Pass.
The Goths had blue eyes and blond hair , the Khazar had also blue eyes and read hair.
The Khazar word according to Etymologists is the Arabic and Armenian pronuncian of Askuz ( notice askuz to Ashkenazim) Also even the goths considered themselves Askuza ( Ascus is the same as Saka the name of the Goths by The persthian king Darius ( in Behistun Inscriptions) Saka is found in Scandia Scandza Scythia words ( Scandia is Scandivavia where Sweden is ) Scythia is the land of Sak ( the Goths north of the Caucasian mountains.
The Khazars ( huns) kicked the goths their cousins from scythia, the Goths ran into Europe and plundred it. The current Europeans are the Goths ( Caucasian Race word is taken from Caucasian mountains and also fro Gog like Gogasian mountains. The caucasian mountains were named so because the Arabs called it Gog-iHisn ( ie The Fort of Gog) because the Gog (caucasian race were beyond these mountains to the north.
So Ashkenazim jews ( majority of Jews ) in our time are descendent of Gog and Magog (Huns the cousins of Goths who lived north of the caucasian mountains)
Originally posted by adnanmuf
There bis no such thing as turkic khazar language the Khazar were not turk ( mongoloid) they were caucasian mainly, there is no known khazar language. The language of the khazar was Yiddish. Yiddish is the most language close to Gothic language now extinct, the second most language that is similar to extinct gothic is English ( current English) the third is German.
East germanic languages include Gothic and Yiddish.
West germanic languages are german English Frensh ( all European languages including Italian and Spanish who had nothing to do with Latin other than the Alphabet.
same thing Yiddish has nothing to do with Hebrew other than the alphabet and some hebrew words.
However the New Hebrew Language is Yiddish using the Hebrew lexicon but Yiddish and German and Serbian grammer.
Let's see:
Yield is a word in English.
Suppose I use this word and add it to Arabic language ( similar to Hebrew), them if I say ( Yield Please ) in Arabic it will be (Yalled) Yeilding is (Tayleed), Yielded is ( yallad) in the new language which is a mixture of English lexicon and Arabic grammer.
Did you understand any of the above words. Neither any arab person does understand them too.
In the same token no Ancient Hebrew will be able to under stand any verse in the New Hebrew language because it is totally foreign to him, especially to add up to the problem the different pronuncian of the Smitic letters in the new Hebrew speakers who are foreign to these letters. For example there is no V in all semitic languages nor can they pronounce it. Mitzva supposed to be pronounced Miswash. ( hard s but definitely not Tz.
So what we have is a Frankeshteinic Lan
Originally posted by adnanmuf
And where this Messiah has to come from david come from???
Can you refer me in the bible where that is??
The Messiah could not be a descendent of david!!!
When Jesus asked the Pharaisees who's on is the messiah. they all said David.
Then Jesus refered to Psalm where David says that he saw ( the Messiah) his master sitting next to God, Jesus continued how can David call his son His Master?
Obviously the Answer is clear. The Messiah is not from david!!!
After the loss of the Northen kingdom the tribe of Juda became dominant and they wanted to take the title of Messiah to themselves like they had David ( the Scepter) in them as prophesized and achieved in Jacob prophecy.
They made themselves pharaissees ( interpreters of the Law ) even though they wer NOT Levites.
Do you understand this?
so what do you mean pharaisees had leviticus piousity or what ever, Where they Levites or were they Not Levites.
If you answered they were not from Levi then they have no authority to teach and interpret the bible to the people (According to Law itself/: the Law itself forbade non Levites to become teacher of Law) so if they become teachers of the Law then they broke the Law!! do you get it?
And stop bringing me ref from Wikipedia ( remember we are in Above top secret, and Wikipedia is a not a top secret ref it is actually politically correct full of lies) use your mind please, or disregard your mind and believe the pharaisees.
Originally posted by adnanmuf
So Ashkenazim jews ( majority of Jews ) in our time are descendent of Gog and Magog (Huns the cousins of Goths who lived north of the caucasian mountains)
The contemporary jews descend from 10 different deep ancestries ( only one of them J1 10% in jews could be that of Abraham, the remaining 90% are not, the 90% are wide varieties of Europeans Mongols Hindi Greek etc) So only 10% ( just one million ) are possibly descendent fromAbraham ( at best )
Originally posted by adnanmuf
You see all semites have J1 and it never change forver. It can only branch, like for example become j1a and j1b, however branching happens once every ten tousand years, and J1 started ( branched ) 10 thousand years ago, so Abraham had the J1 .
Originally posted by runetang
okay, im putting forth a possible agreement for both sides of this argument to examine. so modern day "ethnic jews" can be or may be a mixture of ethnicies such as:
Semitic(Jewish/Arab), Caucasian(Germanic/Slavic), North African/Iberian, and Hun/Turk or for lack of a better term, the area formerly known as Khazar Khaganate. Also, there are Hamitic Ethiopic Jews, so NE African can be added.
This is because the Semitic Jews during the Diaspora settled far and wide and through the centuries a fair amount of intermixing went on with these populations and the locals. However, this was not the common practice, so despite the mixing, it happened infrequently, which is why the genetic markers are so strong in many people today.
Sephardic Jews would be ones who's family settled in Iberia/Spain/North African region and may or may not have intermixed with the local populations to produce today's modern Sephardics.
Askenazim Jews would be ones who's family settled in Europe, particularly Germany and Eastern/Southeastern Europe. There had been intermixing between the peoples, and so you have Askenazi Jews that strongly resemble Slavic peoples and Ashkenazi Jews that strongly resemble Germanic people. The Khazar/Hun connection lies here. There was intermixing between some Khazars and the Eastern European Jewish populations further West as the Khazar Kingdom fell. It all eventually centered around modern day Poland and the surrounding countries which it borders. These people have a possible mix of these ethnicities.
Semitic Jews would be Jews who's family never left the Middle East and still live there or recently moved from there. Others may be descendants of Jewish families which did not leave the Middle East, despite currently living in some other country across the globe.
Ethiopic Jews are those whom intermixed with the local Ethiopian population when the Jewish peoples which fled in this direction settled here. It is said there were pre-existing Jewish communities there before the Diaspora, so perhaps these were Semitic peoples who moved into Horn of Africa at an earlier date, then sheltered the Diaspora victims. Intermixing of the peoples has led to today's Ethiopic Jews looking more Ethiopian than anything, yet often noticably different than a 'regular' Ethiopian. Genetics have confirmed the link.
So, can we lump all the world's Jews into these 4 categories please? Well, there should be five. The fifth is the convert Jew which can be of any ethnicity whatsoever because he has converted TO the Religion.
Can we agree on this?