posted on Dec, 23 2003 @ 07:45 PM
Okay, here goes:
There are a few interesting points to these passages that I would like to comment on up front:
1. The passages from which these verses are extracted are almost identical, almost as if the author of the second copied the first.
2. Both of these passages (taken in their entirety) speak of spiritual deceivers - people who are bringing deceptive teachings, and apparently even
trying to bring the Roman-style orgy into things. All in all, these passages are extremely damning of these people because they are attempting to
lead people AWAY from the foundation doctrine.
3. Each of these passages refer to the fallen angels leaving "their posts" or their "natural habitats" and being condemned to chains of darkness.
A very apparent reference to the Genesis story of the cohabitation with the daughters of men, and the creation of the Nephilim.
The verses are quoted from the KJV - which isn't my preference, but to allow you to cross-reference to a good concordance or Lexicon if you have
one.
2 Peter 2:10
But chiefly them that walk after the flesh in the lust of uncleanness, and despise government. Presumptuous are they, selfwilled, they are not afraid
to speak evil of dignities.
Jude 8
Likewise also these filthy dreamers defile the flesh, despise dominion, and speak evil of dignities.
Of course, via my emphasis, you catch on that the word in question here is that being translated "dignities".
Now, let's look at the New Revised Standard Version translation:
2 Peter 2
10. - especially those who indulge their flesh in depraved lust, and who despise authority. Bold and willful, they are not afraid to slander the
glorious ones,(1)
11. whereas angels, though greater in might and power, do not bring against them a slanderous judgment from the Lord.(2)
(1) Footnote: Or angels; Greek: glories
(2) Footnote: Other ancient authorities read "before the Lord; others lack the phrase
Jude
8. Yet in the same way these dreamers also defile the flesh, reject authority, and slander the glorious ones.(1)
(1) Footnote: Or angels; Greek: glories
NOW PAY ATTENTION HERE, THIS IS WHERE WE START LEARNING THINGS!!
9. But when the archangel Michael contended with the devil and disputed abut the body of Moses, he did not dare to bring a condemnation of slander(2)
against him, but said, "The Lord rebuke you!"
(2) Footnote: Or condemnation for blasphemy
Okay, first thing to point out, and this is where people miss such jewels in studying scripture. If you are looking for discrepancies, you'll find
discrepancies. If you are looking for understanding...you'll find connections!
If you compare what is said in Peter to what is said in Jude you find that:
1. the archangel Michael is an angel (just pointing out the obvious)
"whereas angels, though greater in might and power, do not bring against them a slanderous judgment from the Lord"
"But when the archangel Michael contended with the devil and disputed abut the body of Moses, he did not dare to bring a condemnation of slander(2)
against him"
2. Satan is NOT an angel, fallen or otherwise - Satan is a glorious one. Because to rectify the two passages, he MUST be.
"whereas angels, though greater in might and power, do not bring against them (i.e. the glorious ones!) slanderous judgment from the Lord"
"But when the archangel Michael contended with the devil and disputed abut the body of Moses, he did not dare to bring a condemnation of slander(2)
against him (i.e. him being the glorious one)"
Now, let's look at the meaning of this word. I can't do Greek text here (if somebody can teach me I'll put the actual Greek word in):
This is where things start getting weird. Using the Greek New Testament interlinear translation which has the actual Greek (as far as this is
concerned) with the translation below it, there is printed a Greek word in both locations translated as glorious ones that very close to the Greek
word glory.
HOWEVER, when you go to Strong's Exhaustive Concordance (which is cross-referenced to the KJV) you get an entirely AND ABSOLUTELY DISSIMILAR Greek
word: Epaphroditos.
Now, Strong's conjectures this: "(in the sense of devoted to) and Aphrodite (Venus): Epaphroditus.
But, when you go to the root epi - which they are proposing means "in the sense of devoted to" you find this...
epi: a primary prep.; prop. mean. superimposition (of time, place, order, etc), as a relation of distribution [with the gen.] i.e. over, upon etc.; of
rest at, on etc.; of direction toward, upon etc: - about (the times), above, after, against, among, as long as (touching), at, beside, x have charge
of before, wherefore, in (a place, as much as, the time of,), because of, on behalf of, over, (by, for) the space of, through (throughout), unto, to,
toward, with. In compounds it retains essentially the same import, at, upon, etc.
So where the heck are they getting that the root "epi-" in our word means "devoted to"...when it clearly states that it is positional...in almost
all regards AND In compounds it retains essentially the same import, at, upon, etc.
Could there be connection between the glorious ones and Venus?