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Originally posted by PisTonZOR
Why do many Ruskie Airliners have low wings with Anhedral?
Does that make them more maneuverable?
Originally posted by emile
Hi, friend!
As my knowledge, that anhedral wing be stted on most Cargo or Passenger aircraft just is in order to defend that boundary layer rolling up to wing, if boundary layer get upward to wing that will be dicrease the lift that wing given. Also anhedral can not stop the phnomenon completely, so you can see there is small vertical wing usually be stted on wingtip, thus also for the same reason.
Cheers
I have more questions about the dynamics design for Fighter.
1) I knew what is flaperon and what is aileron, but yesterday, I saw a cutaway of a fighter, that the place where other cutaway show in should be flaperon wherease showing as elevon. So what is elevon? What's the different between elevon and flaperon or aileron.
2) What the different effection between leading-edge slat and leading-edge flap? The leading-edge flap seem to be used by F-16, the leading-edge slat surely be used Mirage2000
3) I looked around recent generation fighter, then found only F-16 and Su-27 only be designed as no aileron, whereas others has. I got strong sillness why such high maneuverability fighter has less control rudder planes then others? Think anout MiG-1.44 has so many moving plane to gain over maneuverability, which give me profound image.
[edit on 29-10-2006 by emile]
Originally posted by kilcoo316
Originally posted by emile
........
2) What the different effection between leading-edge slat and leading-edge flap? The leading-edge flap seem to be used by F-16, the leading-edge slat surely be used Mirage2000
3) I looked around recent generation fighter, then found only F-16 and Su-27 only be designed as no aileron, whereas others has. I got strong sillness why such high maneuverability fighter has less control rudder planes then others? Think anout MiG-1.44 has so many moving plane to gain over maneuverability, which give me profound image.
.........
2. A slat will increase the angle of attack a wing can go to before stalling, a flap will increase the lift coefficient without having to change the angle of attack.
3. Not sure what you mean, the F-16 and Su-27 both have flaperons and LE slats... The advantage of only having one control surface on the TE of the wing is reducing the mass of the wing, which reduces the lateral polar moment of inertia, which gives faster roll response.
Originally posted by emile
3) Yeah, I am suspicious of F-16 and Su-27 suing flaperon to both. What I mean is why do they didn't be designed as using flap and aileron? I think,obviously, that using flap and aileron separatly would be more efficient than only using flaperon.
Still waiting for your teaching.
[edit on 29-10-2006 by emile]
Originally posted by Figher Master FIN
When the plane reached Mach 1, with the wingtips positioned in a (wrong term but I can't really figure out a better one) ahedral way.
Originally posted by Figher Master FIN
I am not talking about the Bernoulli explanation (The longer path explanation)
For me everything falls on the whole "why is the pressure larger under the wing than above it??"
nor the Newtonian explanation because they are faulty
Why is it not entirely correct?
There are several flaws in this theory, although this is a very common explanation found in high school textbooks and even encyclopedias:
1. The assumption that the two air particles described above rejoin each other at the trailing edge of the wing is groundless. In fact, these two air particles have no "knowledge" of each other's presence at all, and there is no logical reason why these particles should end up at the rear of the wing at the same moment in time.
2. For many types of wings, the top surface is longer than the bottom. However, many wings are symmetric (shaped identically on the top and bottom surfaces). This explanation also predicts that planes should not be able to fly upside down, although we know that many planes have this ability.
Originally posted by Figher Master FIN
Great info Kilco, there's alot here to understand. I was just wondering, in the dynamic pressure formula "V" stands for velocity right. But "rho" is that now density or what??
And when you count with static pressure (101.325 kPa) How many significant figures do you use when you calculate?
Originally posted by Figher Master FIN
Canada, here's an extract for why the Bernoulli explanation isn't totally correct.