It looks like you're using an Ad Blocker.
Please white-list or disable AboveTopSecret.com in your ad-blocking tool.
Thank you.
Some features of ATS will be disabled while you continue to use an ad-blocker.
Originally posted by ArchAngel
Arch Angel why wont you admit that just because Israel did make the first attack, they didnt make the declaration of war, Egypt did.
Because its simply not true.
Egypt did not declare war until after the Israeli sneak attack.
It all goes back to the claims that Israel has some moral right to take land.
If the Arabs had attacked first the claim might have had some value, but with Israel as the aggressor all the while claiming self defense the right to take land is simply not there.
You can't steal land from your neighbors by invading in a sneak attack just because you 'knew' that they were going to attack.
The first overt act of war in the crisis was Egypt’s blockade on May 22 of Israel’s southern port of Eilat and the Gulf of Aqaba, through which passed vital cargo including 80 percent of Israel’s oil imports. Blockading such an international waterway is recognized under international law as a casus belli, or act of war. That’s why, in a televised address the next day, President Johnson denounced Egypt’s menacing actions
This is indisputable. This is perfectly reasonable, and nulls any argument you can throw out. Even you should see that, though I doubt you will as you have prooven time and again. Therefore, based on the implementation of international law, the Arabs did act first. Giving justification for a preemptive attack(sneak attack in your terminology). I think the reasonable folks here will agree here. What say you?
Originally posted by Riwka
ArchAngel, this has been explained to you several times
Here's a quick summary of some of the major events leading up to the Six-Day War
and Here is Seekerofs posting dt 12-12-2005 on page 4 of this thread
1967 Arab-Israeli war + pre-emptive strike + 1967
define:pre-emptive strike
States have the right to make pre-emptive strikes on others
The Legality of Preemptive or Preventive Counterproliferation Strikes
Originally posted by Riwka
Jordan had annexed the WestBank - but the Hashemites do not want to have that land anymore.
Furthermore, Israels historic and legal claim to these territories is no less valid than that of the Palestinians. And that's why the future status of the WestBank is subject to negotiation between Israel and the PA.
Originally posted by ludaChris
Alright, Ive got a way to settle this once and for all. Arch Angel, lets see all the evidence you have to support your historically innaccurate claims here. And I mean from a respected source, such as a scholarly source with supplemental links to back it up. Lets see if you can come up with anything credible.
Israel's best option was to strike first.On June 5, the order was given to attack Egypt.
Originally posted by ludaChris
Israel did attack first, but did not commit the first act of war. Egypt did in blocking Israeli trade routes, which as I showed earlier is an act of war.
Originally posted by ludaChris
Youre still not making your case like I asked. Can you make it, or will you continiue stalling?
Originally posted by ArchAngel
Does this give Israel the right to take Land that was not theirs?
Originally posted by ArchAngel
The 1967 war started when Israel invaded in a sneak attack.
Are you denying that?
Originally posted by Seekerof
Originally posted by ArchAngel
The 1967 war started when Israel invaded in a sneak attack.
Are you denying that?
Yes.
It was a pre-emptive strike.
Are you denying that?
Originally posted by ArchAngel
So you are saying that the Israelies did not sneak when they attacked?
Did they announce it before they bombed the Arab airforces as they sat on the ground?
Sneak attack, and Preemptive are not mutually exclusive.
Sneak attack is easy to prove while pre-emption is almost impossible to prove.
Pre-emptive can be aggressive, and unjustified.
And the rules of war in the modern age do not allow for taking land as 'spoils'.
Irregardless, again, did you read the link(s) I provided? Do you understand the purpose of a pre-emptive strike and what it details?
Can you show me the International law that requires a nation to announce to another nation that they are going to do a pre-emptive strike? Kind defeats the purpose of a pre-emptive strike, don't ya think?
Originally posted by ArchAngel
With all the information at your fingertips, the internet, low cost of general college education, free access to professors, teachers and tutors, free libraries, museums, 'low cost' book stores and personal experiences you could seek-out/reach-out and 'learn'...
Why don't you reach out and learn the other side of the situation.
You may know much about one side, but seem to understand little of the other.
Once you see both sides you realize neither is right, and the main problem is status of the 4 million Palestinians and their land.
But your posts are so soaked in Zionist rhetoric I doubt you would be able to put the shoe on the other foot.
Yes, the existence of a separate Palestinian identity serves only tactical purposes. The founding of a Palestinian state is a new tool in the continuing battle against Israel ...
-- Zuheir Muhsin, late Military Department head of the PLO and member of its Executive Council, Dutch daily Trouw, March 1977
(link)