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originally posted by: Asher47
originally posted by: BernnieJGato
originally posted by: alldaylong
originally posted by: SteamyAmerican
I’m waiting for when they come across the value of Irish being less than that of Africans at one time in US history.
Irish where never enslaved in The American Colonies. It's an urban myth.
you are correct, they were just a step above slaves, many were indentured servants who died before they served their contracts out, or broke some law that extended their time, and many were forced into indentured service. all while many more than a few were treated just like they were property of their contract holders. might as well been a slave.
my greatest grandfather was one.
Yes the Irish were a "step above" but worth less, we're abused more and died more often from exposure.
But..yea know
.Protestants and all right?
originally posted by: KrustyKrab
Damn near everyone alive today is a descendant of a slave at one point in time or another. So…where’s the cutoff?
originally posted by: Station27
originally posted by: KrustyKrab
Damn near everyone alive today is a descendant of a slave at one point in time or another. So…where’s the cutoff?
My ancestors were Vikings, so I don't have any slaves in my family tree. And I think the cutoff should be about 1000 years. That would exclude the Viking Age and let me off the hook.
originally posted by: Solvedit
a reply to: ntech620
The point of the quotation is clearly to say the US shall pay for debts incurred in fighting the Confederacy, but not debts incurred by the Confederacy including war debt or damages for the loss of their slaves.
"...neither the United States nor any State shall assume or pay any debt incurred in...rebellion against the United States, or any claim for the loss...of any slave..."
originally posted by: ntech620
originally posted by: Solvedit
a reply to: ntech620
The point of the quotation is clearly to say the US shall pay for debts incurred in fighting the Confederacy, but not debts incurred by the Confederacy including war debt or damages for the loss of their slaves.
"...neither the United States nor any State shall assume or pay any debt incurred in...rebellion against the United States, or any claim for the loss...of any slave..."
You missed the 2nd part of the sentence. "Any claim for the loss or emancipation of any slave.
originally posted by: TheSemiskepticII
a reply to: ntech620
Since when does The United States visit the sins of the Father upon the Sons?
originally posted by: ntech620
And that is why the "NO REPARATIONS FOR SLAVERY" clause was added to the 14th Amendment. To address all of the problems that emancipation of the slaves was bringing to the table. On all sides of the issue.
originally posted by: Irishhaf
My moms family came at the end of the potato famine, my dads ww1 when my gg grandpa decided he didnt want to goto the western front and took his wife to italy and caught a steamer to the US.
We don't have to do as Africa does and we don't have to force them to pay.
If you go back to or before the civil war you have to open up the idea of forcing africa to pay reparations since so many tribes cheerfully took part in sending rivals away as slaves through a european middle man.
We don't have to do as Africa does and we don't have to force them to pay.