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remember edom?
originally posted by: BernnieJGato
a reply to: FarmerSimulation
blah blah blah, i have shown what you orignally posted was false, nothing you post can change that.
so you might as well quit.
ok so one more time and if you don't believe it, go find me some info.
Some people say that Judaism goes by matrilineal descent because we always know who a person’s mother is, and we don’t always know who a person’s father is. However, a person’s status as a priest, Levite, or Israelite is passed down from the father, and such distinctions were of utmost importance in biblical and Rabbinic times (and still, to a certain degree, today). If priesthood can be passed down via one’s father, why not Jewish identity?
Who Is a Jew: Matrilineal Descent Why is Judaism traditionally passed down through the mother?
he Code of Jewish Law clearly states that a child of a Jewish mother is Jewish, regardless of the father’s lineage (or whatever else may show up in a DNA test), while the child of a non-Jewish mother is not Jewish.1 Matrilineal descent has been a fundamental principle of Torah since the Jewish people came into existence. (If your father is Jewish, but not your mother, please see To a Child of a Jewish Father.) Some aspects of Judaism, like the priesthood, are clearly patrilineal (see Patrilineal Descent in Judaism, below). But the entry line into Jewishness has always been through the mother—or conversion.
Why Is Jewishness Matrilineal? Maternal Descent In Judaism
Abraham's wife Sarah was a known hebrew, her slave hager was not. there were no Hebrews during cain and ables life time, they were ancestors of Abraham who became the father of the hebrews after leaving Ur of the Chaldees where his father was a priest of one of their pagen gods.
originally posted by: BernnieJGato
a reply to: i664k
remember edom?
what does that have to do with Jesus being a Jew he was not born from decendents of esau, he was born form decendents of Jacob/ Israel.
unless you can show something that proves that somebody some where in Joseph's and Mary's ancestral records where descended from esau that is a moot point.
and just so you know, Charles A Weisman was antisemitic. he wrote and published lots of antisemitic tripe. not only that he wasn't even a scholar except in his own mind.the world is a much better place now that he is burning in hell. so you quoting him must mean your......
Nothing further is recorded of the Edomites in the Tanakh until their defeat by King Saul of Israel in the late 11th century BC (1 Samuel 14:47). Forty years later King David and his general Joab defeated the Edomites in the "Valley of Salt" (probably near the Dead Sea; 2 Samuel 8:13–14; 1 Kings 9:15–16). An Edomite prince named Hadad escaped and fled to Egypt, and after David's death returned and tried to start a rebellion, but failed and went to Syria (Aramea).[45] From that time Edom remained a vassal of Israel. David placed over the Edomites Israelite governors or prefects,[46] and this form of government seems to have continued under Solomon. When Israel divided into two kingdoms Edom became a dependency of the Kingdom of Judah. In the time of Jehoshaphat (c. 870 – 849 BC) the Tanakh mentions a king of Edom,[47] who was probably an Israelite deputy appointed by the King of Judah. It also states that the inhabitants of Mount Seir invaded Judea in conjunction with Ammon and Moab, and that the invaders turned against one another and were all destroyed (2 Chronicles 20:10–23). Edom revolted against Jehoram and elected a king of its own (2 Kings 8:20–22; 2 Chronicles 21:8). Amaziah attacked and defeated the Edomites, seizing Selah, but the Israelites never subdued Edom completely (2 Kings 14:7; 2 Chronicles 25:11–12).
Hebrew Bible
This is a where the matriarchal lineage to be a jew began according to the 1925 Jewish Encyclopedia volume 5 pg40,41.
originally posted by: FarmerSimulation
originally posted by: BernnieJGato
a reply to: FarmerSimulation
blah blah blah, i have shown what you orignally posted was false, nothing you post can change that.
so you might as well quit.
ok so one more time and if you don't believe it, go find me some info.
Some people say that Judaism goes by matrilineal descent because we always know who a person’s mother is, and we don’t always know who a person’s father is. However, a person’s status as a priest, Levite, or Israelite is passed down from the father, and such distinctions were of utmost importance in biblical and Rabbinic times (and still, to a certain degree, today). If priesthood can be passed down via one’s father, why not Jewish identity?
Who Is a Jew: Matrilineal Descent Why is Judaism traditionally passed down through the mother?
he Code of Jewish Law clearly states that a child of a Jewish mother is Jewish, regardless of the father’s lineage (or whatever else may show up in a DNA test), while the child of a non-Jewish mother is not Jewish.1 Matrilineal descent has been a fundamental principle of Torah since the Jewish people came into existence. (If your father is Jewish, but not your mother, please see To a Child of a Jewish Father.) Some aspects of Judaism, like the priesthood, are clearly patrilineal (see Patrilineal Descent in Judaism, below). But the entry line into Jewishness has always been through the mother—or conversion.
Why Is Jewishness Matrilineal? Maternal Descent In Judaism
Abraham's wife Sarah was a known hebrew, her slave hager was not. there were no Hebrews during cain and ables life time, they were ancestors of Abraham who became the father of the hebrews after leaving Ur of the Chaldees where his father was a priest of one of their pagen gods.
From about 10:00-14:00 mark.
The j sound was an I.
The Yehudi, which were Edomites inhabited Yehuda which became Judah.
These are who are later referred to as jews.
When the edomites were wiped out by King David all the males were killed leaving only the women and were absorbed into Israel. This is a where the matriarchal lineage to be a jew began according to the 1925 Jewish Encyclopedia volume 5 pg40,41.
So blah blah blah, but don't quit.
Learn
As for patriarchal lineage.
I do not believe Abraham worshipped Yahweh. He worshiped El the most high.
originally posted by: BernnieJGato
a reply to: FarmerSimulation
again blah blah blah, you don't eben have a clue do you?
what did you forget to change your sock before you posted this? yesterday you didn't mention the first thing about edomites then when 164 started posting who just joined today mentioned edomites now your are.
anyway
you must have a reading and comprehension skills deficiency. David didn't wipe out the edomites. it even says so in your reference to the Jewish Encyclopedia volume 5 pg40,41. many sources say joab who David told Solomon to kill on his death bed because he was a disloyal ---k and quite often failed to follow orders from David took it upon himself kill they people he did when he stayed to bury Iraels dead. anyhow the prince of the edomites hadad escaped and went to egypt and later came back and tried to lead a revolt against Solomon and lost and went to syria. then even in your reference when babylon sacked Jerslum edomites were there helping.
if as you said or should i have said made up David wiped out edom,and had all the men killed how could hahad the prince/ now king of eodm escape to egypt come back and and try to get the men of edom to revolt against Solomon. then later how could edom have been helping babylon or even gain their independence, then later driven out by the neibtain arabs never to be heard from again except for the few that remained in Judea.
screen shots from Jewish Encyclopedia volume 5 pg,41
it pretty much says the same in the wiki,
Nothing further is recorded of the Edomites in the Tanakh until their defeat by King Saul of Israel in the late 11th century BC (1 Samuel 14:47). Forty years later King David and his general Joab defeated the Edomites in the "Valley of Salt" (probably near the Dead Sea; 2 Samuel 8:13–14; 1 Kings 9:15–16). An Edomite prince named Hadad escaped and fled to Egypt, and after David's death returned and tried to start a rebellion, but failed and went to Syria (Aramea).[45] From that time Edom remained a vassal of Israel. David placed over the Edomites Israelite governors or prefects,[46] and this form of government seems to have continued under Solomon. When Israel divided into two kingdoms Edom became a dependency of the Kingdom of Judah. In the time of Jehoshaphat (c. 870 – 849 BC) the Tanakh mentions a king of Edom,[47] who was probably an Israelite deputy appointed by the King of Judah. It also states that the inhabitants of Mount Seir invaded Judea in conjunction with Ammon and Moab, and that the invaders turned against one another and were all destroyed (2 Chronicles 20:10–23). Edom revolted against Jehoram and elected a king of its own (2 Kings 8:20–22; 2 Chronicles 21:8). Amaziah attacked and defeated the Edomites, seizing Selah, but the Israelites never subdued Edom completely (2 Kings 14:7; 2 Chronicles 25:11–12).
Hebrew Bible
now as far as this,
This is a where the matriarchal lineage to be a jew began according to the 1925 Jewish Encyclopedia volume 5 pg40,41.
nothing in your reference says anything about matriarchal or patrilineality linage determining who is a jew. what it does say is that any one born of a mixed marriage of a jew and edomite shall not be considered to be a jew until the forth generation of that union be it male jew and edomite female or visa versa. but i will give you this there is some argument it it should only be males until the forth generation or both male and female.
here a screen shot,
so you lied straight up there. just as you did about wiping them out.
so one more time, blah blah blah,nothing you have posted changes the fact i have again proven your original post wrong where you said some one whose ancestors never set foot in the Holy Land can claim to be a jew and every post after.
you really need to work on those reading and comprehension skills.
originally posted by: BernnieJGato
a reply to: Thewayifeelisthewayiam
here is a little something about robert sepehr
Ameri can Far-right conspiracy theorist ostracised by followers after they found out he was Jewish
The Theories of Robert Sepehr and Why they are Dangerous.
the man ain't right in da head.
If I bring up "the Curse of Canaan" by Eustace Mullins for reference and historical support for these claims. Can you research him first and tell me how you will discredit him and the info before I post anything please?
Eustace Clarence Mullins Jr. (March 9, 1923 – February 2, 2010)[1] was an American white supremacist, antisemitic conspiracy theorist, propagandist,[2] Holocaust denier, and writer. A disciple of the poet Ezra Pound,[3] his best-known work is The Secrets of The Federal Reserve, in which he alleged that several high-profile bankers had conspired to write the Federal Reserve Act for their own nefarious purposes, and then induced Congress to enact it into law. The Southern Poverty Law Center described him as "a one-man organization of hate".[4]
Hitler and the Holocaust Mullins' October 1952 article entitled "Adolf Hitler: An Appreciation" was mentioned in a report by the House Un-American Activities Committee.[26] In it, he espoused antisemitic views and expressed the belief that America owed a debt to Hitler.[27] The article first appeared in The National Renaissance, journal of the National Renaissance Party.[14] In a tract from 1984 called The Secret Holocaust, Mullins stated that the accepted account of the Holocaust is implausible, calling it a cover story for Jewish-led Soviet massacres of Christians and anti-communists.[28] In particular, Mullins argues that by the mid-1960s, in order to divert the world's attention away from this putative mass slaughter, "the Jews" had cooked up the story of the Holocaust, using "photographs of the bodies of their German victims, which are exhibited today in gruesome 'museums' in Germany as exhibits of dead Jews"[29] as evidence for their claims.[28]
Mullins was involved with a number of extremist right-wing and neofascist groups from the early 1950s through the 1990s.[32] These included the National Association for the Advancement of White People and James H. Madole's[14] organization, the National Renaissance Party (NRP).[33] In the early 1950s Mullins regularly[33] spoke in public at NRP demonstrations.[14] His then-roommate was Matt Koehl, later the leader of the American Nazi Party but at that time head of the NRP's "Security Echelon Guard."[14]
originally posted by: RussianTroll
Hello ATS!
I, as a believing Orthodox Christian, certainly believe in the Old and New Testaments. Every event and every word. But sometimes you come across ancient artifacts that make you wonder if everything in this story is so clear? Today I want to tell you about one of these artifacts, on the basis of which some scientists have the opportunity to claim that Jesus was allegedly Russian.
So. There is such a concept as a “decapolis” or decapolis - a group of ten ancient cities east of the Jordan Valley, from the southwestern plateau of the Golan Heights to modern Amman.
These cities were the centers of civilization before our era. They existed before the arrival of the Roman Empire, and after that they became its main part. The city of Jerash or biblical Gerasa was one of the greatest cities of the decapolis, known 2 thousand years before the birth of Christ. The city was completely destroyed by a powerful earthquake in 749. It is probably for this reason that those who rewrote the history of mankind in the 18th and 19th centuries failed to reach it. Excavations began only in 1920.
Here is one of the first photographs of the Geras mosaic, taken at the time of excavation. Please note that the ground has not yet been completely cleared, the inscriptions are not visible, but a strange guy with a bucket in high boots is already visible. Don’t you think that his appearance is somehow not Greco-Roman? Let's look at the already cleaned mosaic in color.
Unfortunately, several hours of searching for an adequate photograph on the Internet did not lead to anything; the “Western partners” do not want to show us this particular fragment of the mosaic from the Church of Saints Cosmas and Damian, so we had to pass the picture of terrible quality through neural network. But what happened.
The image shows a man dressed in what is clearly Slavic clothing, including trousers.
1. The ancient Greeks equated wearing pants with barbaric customs, associating this element of clothing with the Persians, Sarmatians, Scythians, and Asian peoples.
2. The ancient Greeks also did not wear boots. The closest Greek anagogue is Persikai. Boots made of soft leather, which, neither in their height nor in their cut, clearly reach those that we see in the picture.
That is, we draw an absolutely clear conclusion - the picture depicts is not a Greek, not a Roman, and certainly not a Jew, but a representative of the “wild” Scythian-Sarmatian peoples.
Even more interesting is the inscription on the fragment of the mosaic. And it says - "ХРlCTE". And different sources claim that the inscription was made either in Greek, which is not surprising, or in Cyrillic (which did not yet officially exist) or Glagolitic. And this can be shocking.
Why? Because the Greeks did not use the letter C, but always used sigma - Σ or σ. To be fair, it is worth noting that there is another way to write sigma - ς. Another piece of evidence in favor of the Slavic version comes from other inscriptions in the same mosaic:
The presence of the letter Yus small. This letter was used in the Glagolitic alphabet and the early version of the Cyrillic alphabet. Now the letter is used in the Church Slavonic alphabet.
Before us there is a mosaic on the floor of an ancient temple, clearly made before the appearance of the Slavs according to official history, that is, long before the 6th century. Moreover, the mosaic is signed with Slavic letters, clearly depicting a Slav in national clothes. And this inscription is “ХРlCTE”. Now, “Christ” in Greek and Hebrew do not mean the same thing. If in Hebrew Christ is the anointed one or the messiah, then in Greek it is the one who anoints, anoints. uses medicinal ointment.
But there is one more detail on the mosaic; I will not give an image of it for obvious reasons. But you, dear ATS members, can look at them in the second photo in the thread. These are swastikas. There are swastikas on four sides of the picture. For the Greeks, the swastika symbol meant “tetragammadion” or “tetragrammaton” - a four-letter word, the scientifically accepted name for the name of the God of Israel, Yahweh.
That is, the figure of Christ was surrounded by the names of God? This is obvious, just as it is obvious that among the Slavs, to whom our figure belongs, the swastika is also a symbol of one specific and completely defined god - Rod.
You can draw your own conclusions from the facts I have presented.
Thank you.
originally posted by: Armageddon17
originally posted by: RussianTroll
Hello ATS!
I, as a believing Orthodox Christian, certainly believe in the Old and New Testaments. Every event and every word. But sometimes you come across ancient artifacts that make you wonder if everything in this story is so clear? Today I want to tell you about one of these artifacts, on the basis of which some scientists have the opportunity to claim that Jesus was allegedly Russian.
So. There is such a concept as a “decapolis” or decapolis - a group of ten ancient cities east of the Jordan Valley, from the southwestern plateau of the Golan Heights to modern Amman.
These cities were the centers of civilization before our era. They existed before the arrival of the Roman Empire, and after that they became its main part. The city of Jerash or biblical Gerasa was one of the greatest cities of the decapolis, known 2 thousand years before the birth of Christ. The city was completely destroyed by a powerful earthquake in 749. It is probably for this reason that those who rewrote the history of mankind in the 18th and 19th centuries failed to reach it. Excavations began only in 1920.
Here is one of the first photographs of the Geras mosaic, taken at the time of excavation. Please note that the ground has not yet been completely cleared, the inscriptions are not visible, but a strange guy with a bucket in high boots is already visible. Don’t you think that his appearance is somehow not Greco-Roman? Let's look at the already cleaned mosaic in color.
Unfortunately, several hours of searching for an adequate photograph on the Internet did not lead to anything; the “Western partners” do not want to show us this particular fragment of the mosaic from the Church of Saints Cosmas and Damian, so we had to pass the picture of terrible quality through neural network. But what happened.
The image shows a man dressed in what is clearly Slavic clothing, including trousers.
1. The ancient Greeks equated wearing pants with barbaric customs, associating this element of clothing with the Persians, Sarmatians, Scythians, and Asian peoples.
2. The ancient Greeks also did not wear boots. The closest Greek anagogue is Persikai. Boots made of soft leather, which, neither in their height nor in their cut, clearly reach those that we see in the picture.
That is, we draw an absolutely clear conclusion - the picture depicts is not a Greek, not a Roman, and certainly not a Jew, but a representative of the “wild” Scythian-Sarmatian peoples.
Even more interesting is the inscription on the fragment of the mosaic. And it says - "ХРlCTE". And different sources claim that the inscription was made either in Greek, which is not surprising, or in Cyrillic (which did not yet officially exist) or Glagolitic. And this can be shocking.
Why? Because the Greeks did not use the letter C, but always used sigma - Σ or σ. To be fair, it is worth noting that there is another way to write sigma - ς. Another piece of evidence in favor of the Slavic version comes from other inscriptions in the same mosaic:
The presence of the letter Yus small. This letter was used in the Glagolitic alphabet and the early version of the Cyrillic alphabet. Now the letter is used in the Church Slavonic alphabet.
Before us there is a mosaic on the floor of an ancient temple, clearly made before the appearance of the Slavs according to official history, that is, long before the 6th century. Moreover, the mosaic is signed with Slavic letters, clearly depicting a Slav in national clothes. And this inscription is “ХРlCTE”. Now, “Christ” in Greek and Hebrew do not mean the same thing. If in Hebrew Christ is the anointed one or the messiah, then in Greek it is the one who anoints, anoints. uses medicinal ointment.
But there is one more detail on the mosaic; I will not give an image of it for obvious reasons. But you, dear ATS members, can look at them in the second photo in the thread. These are swastikas. There are swastikas on four sides of the picture. For the Greeks, the swastika symbol meant “tetragammadion” or “tetragrammaton” - a four-letter word, the scientifically accepted name for the name of the God of Israel, Yahweh.
That is, the figure of Christ was surrounded by the names of God? This is obvious, just as it is obvious that among the Slavs, to whom our figure belongs, the swastika is also a symbol of one specific and completely defined god - Rod.
You can draw your own conclusions from the facts I have presented.
Thank you.
Nice thread.
I am not sure if Jesus is a historical person.
originally posted by: FlyersFan
It's just art work and doesn't mean anything. Cultures around the world depict Jesus and his mother as looking like their own culture instead of looking JEWISH, which is what they were. In Mexico Jesus and Mary look Mexican. In Japan they look Asian. In America they look very white instead of a Middle Eastern olive complexion. In Africa they are depicted as black.