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originally posted by: beyondknowledge
a reply to: vernichter
I see pretty graphs and a link to an explanation of how the graphs were made.
I so far see nothing that explains any meaning to the graphs other than they show a strong vote for one side.
Isn't that how elections work? One side wins because they got more votes? Please explain your OP.
originally posted by: tamusan
a reply to: vernichter
Did something not go your way and now you find there could be no other explanation other than the other side cheated?
originally posted by: vernichter
originally posted by: tamusan
a reply to: vernichter
Did something not go your way and now you find there could be no other explanation other than the other side cheated?
You could address the same criticism to Washington Post and PNAS articles on Russia elections. Or statistical anomalies suddenly lose significance when they are found in US elections?
originally posted by: tamusan
a reply to: vernichter
Did something not go your way and now you find there could be no other explanation other than the other side cheated?
You should have asked this question the authors of Washington Post and PNAS articles who challenged Russia elections. Why you did not do it?
originally posted by: 1947boomer
originally posted by: vernichter
a reply to: Brotherman
……..
If you do the same analysis with Michigan elections you arrive at the same result.
No, you don’t.
The guy who wrote this article—Mikhail Simkin—didn’t do the same analysis on the 2020 Michigan election that the PNAS authors—Klimek, et. al. did for the Russian elections in their 2012 paper. Simkin simply showed one plot of the logarithmic vote rate for Michigan in 2008 and 2012, compared to Switzerland and Spain. What the log plot shows is that there was a high fractional turnout of the electorate in 2008 and 2012 in Michigan and it was skewed toward the Democratic candidate. Interestingly, by far the highest turnout was in 2012 (for Obama), and not in 2020. This is well established by voting records in Michigan. Simkin doesn’t discuss this obvious fact, probably because it doesn’t fit his narrative.
originally posted by: 1947boomer
Klimek, et. al. did not rely on this simple logarithmic vote rate plot to come to their conclusions. They looked at the number of voting districts in Russia (and Uganda) that had supposedly 100% turnout and 100% voting for the incumbent. It’s almost impossible for a voting district to have that kind of fingerprint by chance. I don’t think there were any Michigan voting districts in 2008 and 2020 that showed that pattern.
originally posted by: carewemust
Of course Michigan election officials, Dem AG, and Dem Governor, would criticize anyone disputing the election results. That's common sense.
originally posted by: 1947boomer
originally posted by: vernichter
a reply to: Brotherman
……..
If you do the same analysis with Michigan elections you arrive at the same result.
No, you don’t.
The guy who wrote this article—Mikhail Simkin—didn’t do the same analysis on the 2020 Michigan election that the PNAS authors—Klimek, et. al. did for the Russian elections in their 2012 paper. Simkin simply showed one plot of the logarithmic vote rate for Michigan in 2008 and 2012, compared to Switzerland and Spain. What the log plot shows is that there was a high fractional turnout of the electorate in 2008 and 2012 in Michigan and it was skewed toward the Democratic candidate. Interestingly, by far the highest turnout was in 2012 (for Obama), and not in 2020. This is well established by voting records in Michigan. Simkin doesn’t discuss this obvious fact, probably because it doesn’t fit his narrative.
Klimek, et. al. did not rely on this simple logarithmic vote rate plot to come to their conclusions. They looked at the number of voting districts in Russia (and Uganda) that had supposedly 100% turnout and 100% voting for the incumbent. It’s almost impossible for a voting district to have that kind of fingerprint by chance. I don’t think there were any Michigan voting districts in 2008 and 2020 that showed that pattern.
originally posted by: bloodymarvelous
A 100% or even near 100% turnout would be highly suspicious. (And is the real issue with Russian election results.)
Detailed reports from the office of Wayne County Clerk Cathy Garrett show optical scanners at 248 of the city’s 662 precincts, or 37 percent, tabulated more ballots than the number of voters tallied by workers in the poll books
originally posted by: frogs453
a reply to: vernichter
Yep happened in 2016 for a total of 782 votes spread out over 200 precincts.
Republican Lawyers Association
originally posted by: frogs453
It was found to be human error in the poll books.
originally posted by: 1947boomer
Klimek, et. al. did not rely on this simple logarithmic vote rate plot to come to their conclusions. They looked at the number of voting districts in Russia (and Uganda) that had supposedly 100% turnout and 100% voting for the incumbent. It’s almost impossible for a voting district to have that kind of fingerprint by chance. I don’t think there were any Michigan voting districts in 2008 and 2020 that showed that pattern.
originally posted by: 1947boomer
Klimek, et. al. did not rely on this simple logarithmic vote rate plot to come to their conclusions. They looked at the number of voting districts in Russia (and Uganda) that had supposedly 100% turnout and 100% voting for the incumbent. It’s almost impossible for a voting district to have that kind of fingerprint by chance. I don’t think there were any Michigan voting districts in 2008 and 2020 that showed that pattern.