Yes, that's right, yet another thread on the January 6th, 2020 hearings. But this one has a twist: I don't care about who said what to who and who
testified what and who was lying by saying this or that... there's plenty of those threads already.
I want to address one simple issue that, to be honest, scares the dickens outta me. That issue is
jurisdiction.
Jurisdiction is defined as the legal authority that a government body is allowed to possess. For instance, Alabama courts have no jurisdiction in
Tennessee. If a crime is committed in Tennessee, Alabama courts do not have jurisdiction over it. A deputy in one county cannot go into another county
and start writing tickets to speeders... he has no jurisdiction outside of his county. Every court that tries a case has one basic question to answer
before anything else gets done:
does that court have jurisdiction over that case? If not, the case is referred to whichever court
does
have jurisdiction.
So my big question is: does Congress have jurisdiction to investigate the January 6th, 2020 protests/riots/demonstrations? Are the subpoenas and
indictments for Contempt of Congress legal?
Congressional jurisdiction is located in one place and one place only: the US Constitution. If it isn't there, it does not exist.
The US Constitution is pretty specific when it comes to Congressional jurisdiction... Article 1 Section 8 lists
18 specific areas of jurisdiction granted to the US Congress (I'm not going to list them all here; go to the link and read for yourself). The two
primary jurisdictions I saw are legislative (forbidden to any other branch of government) and removal of government officials. What I did not see,
despite searching for it, is anything to do with enforcement of laws - with one exception: Congress has the jurisdiction to "define and punish
Piracies and Felonies committed on the high Seas, and Offences against the Law of Nations" (paragraph 10).
I might should point out that nothing on January 6th, 2020, occurred on the "High Seas."
Now, any authority necessary to carry out granted authority is considered implied by the courts, and I agree with that. Congress does have the power
to issue subpoenas for testimony and documents known to exist, as long as these subpoenas are related to the legal exercise of jurisdictional
authority. In other words, if Congress wishes to investigate actions of a Supreme Court Justice, Congress may subpoena any papers or recordings
normally kept by the Court, and Congress may subpoena any witnesses who might have information on those actions being investigated by Congress.
Congress has the legal jurisdiction to impeach and try sitting officials, therefore Congress has the right to investigate those officials and to
require any information they reasonably believe is relevant to their investigation.
It's the same legal theory that allows a person to be charged with contempt of court. Anything a person does willingly that interferes with the
proper application of justice in the courtroom, from refusing to appear to refusing to provide known-to-exist documents, to disruption of the
proceedings, opens a person up to a contempt of court charge. However, there are still safeguards: a person cannot be compelled to incriminate
themselves, so "taking the 5th" is a legal defense for contempt of court. Of course, that normally only applies to the defendant, as only the
defendant is normally subject to court decisions in the case.
The problem I see is that Congress does not have legal jurisdiction to try criminal cases against citizens. That is the jurisdiction of the Judicial
Branch. Congress does not have the right to arrest or detain any citizen; that is the jurisdiction of the Executive Branch. Simply put, Congress has
no right to even be investigating the events of January 6th, since it has no jurisdiction to act on that investigation.
That would mean that since Congress has no right to investigate, Congress also has no right to subpoena information or witnesses. Yet, we have two
people already indicted by the DoJ (who does have jurisdiction to do so) for Contempt of Congress. Therefore the subpoenas are not legal and refusal
to comply is not a crime. Now, yes, I know a Grand Jury has already indicted Steve Bannon... but speaking as someone who has served on a Grand Jury,
it is indeed quite possible to indict a ham sandwich for being a BLT on rye. All an indictment means is that a Grand Jury composed of average people
agreed with what the prosecutor told them. You would be amazed at how persuasive a prosecutor can be when there is no defense offered, and Grand
Juries normally do not hear any defense. Their job is to verify that the prosecutor has enough evidence to win in court, and most people will listen
to the lawyer on that.
Bannon's court date is scheduled for July 18th. Peter Navarro (the other person charged with Contempt of Congress) does not yet have a court date
that I can find. I expect both cases to be thrown out (although considering the corruption in DC right now, it woldn't shock me if they weren't). No
crime was committed.
I need to mention that this is not the first time Congress has tried to exercise executive or judicial jurisdiction; the same thing happened during
McCarthyism. However I maintain that just because something illegal occurs, it does not follow that said something is now legal. If I rob a bank and
the prosecutor in my trial makes a bad motion that lets me go free, that does not make bank robbery legal in the future. it means a mistake was made
in my case. I maintain that Congress' use of investigative powers during McCarthyism was such a mistake, and one that needs to be corrected instead
of emulated.
One more thing... this televised event has been called a "hearing." A hearing in a legal setting is a portion of a trial that is used to determine
an answer to a legal question: is this evidence admissible? Should the plea deal be accepted? what should we decide on a motion? That kind of thing.
However, I see no questions being raised on any side issue on these "hearings"... indeed, I see no trial being underway. In a normal hearing, both
sides are there to present arguments, but in this "hearing" it seems only one side, the prosecution, is represented. All evidence and testimony
presented is that which the prosecution wishes to present. The defense isn't even involved. That's not a "hearing"... it is what most people would
refer to as a "kangaroo court."
So what is the purpose of the "hearing"? If it is a fact-finding hearing, why is the defense not involved?
In short, I believe Congress has now officially gone rouge, taking powers and jurisdiction for itself that it does not have a legal right to. If this
continues, attending a protest could become a Congressional investigation, landing any of us in prison for Contempt of Congress simply because we
chose to exercise our Constitutional rights in a manner that Congress did not like.
Is that worth it? If not, maybe We the People should shut this down instead of treating it like a prime-time soap opera.
TheRedneck