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originally posted by: TzarChasm
originally posted by: neoholographic
originally posted by: TzarChasm
originally posted by: neoholographic
a reply to: TzarChasm
Again, a response devoid of any coherency about the topic of the thread. I will ask you the question I asked the other guy.
So tell me, how do you know a state has been measured without consciousness?
Let's be clear on this point: the act of measuring does not create the measurement. It's a translation process, aka converting natural data into artificial data that is compatible with technology we use to study the causality of that natural data. The data itself exists whether we look at it or not. Consider the many thousands of fossils excavated in the last century. According to your logic, those fossils didn't exist until we exposed the sediment they were buried in. We essentially conjured those results. Is that correct?
You didn't answer the question.
So tell me, how do you know a state has been measured without consciousness?
It's a simple question. Stop obfuscating and answer the question. You said the data exists whether we look at it or not, how do you know this without consciousness?
How do you know anything with consciousness? How do you know this isn't a dream you're having while in a coma? You're technically aware but only inside your head and you can't tell the difference. How do you know this is genuine reality and not your subconscious fabricating your experiences?
originally posted by: neoholographic
a reply to: Phantom423
You said:
The laws of nature are inherent.
Okay, show me the evidence. Were they inherent before the big bang or after? Were they inherent in the quantum vacuum? Where they inherent before or after inflation? Were they inherent in the Planck Epoch?
Were they inherent before consciousness defined the word inherent?
It's amazing you don't see the catch 22 you're in but keep going.
originally posted by: neoholographic
a reply to: TzarChasm
And you have no evidence the universe operated at all without consciousness. If it did, explain to me the exact point the universe evolved this value of the gravitational constant and exactly how do you know this without consciousness.
So tell me, how do you know a state has been measured without consciousness?
originally posted by: Phantom423
a reply to: Blue Shift
Then the OP's question is a moot point.
originally posted by: TzarChasm
a reply to: neoholographic
Were they inherent before consciousness defined the word inherent?
Yes. Apparently you don't grasp the idea that stuff was happening naturally eons before language was invented.
originally posted by: neoholographic
If the cat can't be alive or dead for any measurable instance, when does Decoherence decide which state the cat will be in?
originally posted by: neoholographic
originally posted by: TzarChasm
a reply to: neoholographic
Were they inherent before consciousness defined the word inherent?
Yes. Apparently you don't grasp the idea that stuff was happening naturally eons before language was invented.
Again, show me the evidence that these things existed before consciousness. Again, you're in a hopeless situation because you can't just admit you have no evidence. This is why your posts are devoid of any evidence about anything.
You have to take it on faith that a universe existed without consciousness. The only way you can say it existed is because consciousness told you it did. Anything beyond that is just speculation on your part unless you have some evidence.
originally posted by: neoholographic
originally posted by: TzarChasm
a reply to: neoholographic
Were they inherent before consciousness defined the word inherent?
Yes. Apparently you don't grasp the idea that stuff was happening naturally eons before language was invented.
Again, show me the evidence that these things existed before consciousness. Again, you're in a hopeless situation because you can't just admit you have no evidence. This is why your posts are devoid of any evidence about anything.
You have to take it on faith that a universe existed without consciousness. The only way you can say it existed is because consciousness told you it did. Anything beyond that is just speculation on your part unless you have some evidence.
originally posted by: dragonridr
a reply to: neoholographic
Ok once again this paper is using a holographic principle to make a model of dark matter. It is not saying the universe is a hologram this seems to be a difficult problem for you. I suggest you go back and read my previous reply where I explained how the holographic principle is used as a shortcut so you don't have to be overwhelmed by measurements. I'm not going to keep trying to explain this to you when you don't have the physics background to understand it.
I'm Lawrence Goodman with the Office of Communications. With me today is Brandeis University associate professor of physics Matthew Headrick, who is here to explain what is really a mind-blowing theory in physics, the idea that the universe is a hologram. It's also called the holographic principle.
HEADRICK: Well, as you said, the holographic principle is the idea that the universe around us, which we are used to thinking of as being three dimensional — we have three dimensions of space — is actually at a more fundamental level two dimensional and that everything we see that's going on around us in three dimensions is actually happening in a two-dimensional space.
HEADRICK: Right. So similarly to the bits and bytes that live on a compact disc, which encode, for example, a piece of music — on this plane, that's where the bits that fundamentally make up our universe live. That's where they're encoded and what they're encoding is what we see going on around us in three dimensions.
HOST: And so you're saying that this information on a two-dimensional plane encodes for our three-dimensional universe?
HEADRICK: Exactly. Like in the compact disc example, it encodes some piece of music. In this case, it encodes what's going on in our universe.
You made the holographic principle the #1 argument in your OP, and Dragonridr is correct in saying it is not about an immaterial universe, it's an attempted mathematical approach to solve some mathematical issues.
originally posted by: neoholographic
First off, this thread isn't about the Holographic Principle. This is just more obfuscation and lies on your part. This thread is saying that scientist have to come up with things like the Holographic Universe because there's no evidence that an objective material universe exists.
Dragonridr explained it very simply but you still don't seem to get it:
originally posted by: neoholographic
1. The universe is a hologram
...If there were an objective material universe, why talk about the universe as a hologram?
I don't know how to explain it any more simply that what Dragonridr said, the effort is basically a mathematical approach, which is not implying anything about objective reality. The OP commonly misunderstands the sources cited, and that's the case with the holographic principle which doesn't imply what the OP claims it implies, according to the sources posted.
originally posted by: dragonridr
a reply to: neoholographic
You proved my point in each paper you cite they are using the holographic principle to create a model. Its used to simplify the math involved. None of these are claiming the universe is a hologram or there is no reality.
originally posted by: TzarChasm
originally posted by: neoholographic
originally posted by: TzarChasm
a reply to: neoholographic
Were they inherent before consciousness defined the word inherent?
Yes. Apparently you don't grasp the idea that stuff was happening naturally eons before language was invented.
Again, show me the evidence that these things existed before consciousness. Again, you're in a hopeless situation because you can't just admit you have no evidence. This is why your posts are devoid of any evidence about anything.
You have to take it on faith that a universe existed without consciousness. The only way you can say it existed is because consciousness told you it did. Anything beyond that is just speculation on your part unless you have some evidence.
You already admitted you have no evidence that fundamental astrophysics and chemistry were altered from their behavioral patterns before the human race was born, ergo what we observe today has always been there functioning independently and apathetically of our influences. Any claims beyond that are yours to substantiate.
originally posted by: dragonridr
a reply to: neoholographic
No you just fail to understand how physics works as for debating me that didn't happen I'm simply informing you that times have changed string theory is no longer in favor and 90 percent of physicists have dismissed the idea of one-dimensional strings. That's why I originally said you were stuck in the 90s and you want to use that science to somehow show the universe doesn't exist.
originally posted by: neoholographic
a reply to: Phantom423
You said:
The laws of nature are inherent.
Okay, show me the evidence. Were they inherent before the big bang or after? Were they inherent in the quantum vacuum? Where they inherent before or after inflation? Were they inherent in the Planck Epoch?
Were they inherent before consciousness defined the word inherent?
It's amazing you don't see the catch 22 you're in but keep going.
Although stars in our galaxy are effectively at cosmological redshift zero, the most distant supernovae seen occur out past redshift one, which the above chart shows occurred when the universe was approximately half its present age. By contrast, the most distant gamma-ray bursts yet observed occur out past redshift six, occurring when the universe was younger than one billion years old, less than 10 percent of its present age.
Can a materialist provide scientific evidence that the material world has an objective existence?