Originally posted by dbrandt
Originally posted by OpenSecret2012
2. The person I was responding to, DrBrandt, obviously was tangled up. Just re-read his post:
"God(the real God of the Bible) is certainly giving us plenty of warning through this stuff."
Anyone can see that that makes no sense! Even DrBrandt saw this! That's why he had to add the parenthisis. Compare to saying:
I'm dbrandt not drbrandt.
But.. "Dr" sounds better!
OK, I made a little mistake.
Originally posted by dbrandt
When I say the God of the Bible I mean the one who inspired it to be written. There are entities mentioned in the Bible that people worship as a god
but they are either fiction or are associated with satan and deceiving people to think they are on the same level as God.
No matter if the other gods or "other gods" are fake, real beings who are lesser in power than Yahweh, the fact remains whenever any of them are
being talked about, they are specifically named by their personal name. Why? So the reader knows which god or gods, is being talked about. Baal or
Marduk? The Raphaim or Anakim? The "Prince of Persia" or Gabrial? The Son of Dawn or Jesus (Yehushua or Y'ushuah)?
The Prince of Persia was worshipped as a god. To his followers he was a god. The Prince of Persia beat to a pulp one of Yahweh's angels (more
accurate translation of the word 'angel' is : messenger). Yahweh then had to send back up, a 2nd angel, to help out his first angel.
OK, so followers of the Bible
know which god is the true god. But what about people who
don't follow the bible? When a follower of
Yahweh goes to Persia does he say "God demands you worship him!" ?
The Persians would say "Yes he sure does!". The Persians would think it's their god being talked about, not the god of the Bible.
Compare to if a follower of Yahweh goes to Persia and says "Yahweh demands that you worship him!" The Persians would
instantly know which god
is being talked about. Not the god they worship. Not their god who beat an angel to a pulp. Not their god who took on 2 of Yahweh's angels at the
same time.
That's why the god of the Bible told what his specific name is. For his followers,
and for non-followers.
Originally posted by dbrandt
So, who did Jesus claim to be? Who does the Bible say He was? First, let's look at Jesus’ words in John 10:30, “I and the Father are one.”
At first glance, this might not seem to be a claim to be God. However, look at the Jews’ reaction to His statement, “We are not stoning you for
any of these, replied the Jews, but for blasphemy, because you, a mere man, claim to be God” (John 10:33).
Yes, Jesus did say "I and my Father are one."
Does this mean they are the exact same person?
OR.... does it, can it, mean something else?
Like... Jesus is saying he and his father are
on the same side. Of the same mindset. Working towards the same goals. Need an example? In
Genesis when God talks about marriage, and how a husband and a wife leave their parents and will become one. Become the same flesh. Does this mean a
husband and wife are the exact same person? That their two bodies morph into 1 body? That their 2 brains morph into 1 brain?
OR... two different people who are
on the same side. Of the same mindset. Working towards the same goals?
Look at the scripture that surrounds John 10:33. They are in the same context, on same topic:
John 10:25
Jesus answered them, I told you, and ye believed not: the works that I do in my Father's name, they bear witness of me.
John 10:29-30
My Father, which gave them me, is greater than all; and no man is able to pluck them out of my Father's hand.
30I and my Father are one.
Here, Jesus says his dad gave him his powers. His dad is greater than all, greater than man, and greater than Jesus (since He gave Jesus his powers.)
Jesus shows how close he is to his dad by saying they are one. Just like how the Bible (in Genesis) shows how close a husband and wife are suppose to
be when it says a husband and wife become one. In the
English language, this term the majority of the time refers to two or more seperate
people who work as one. The way to tell what it refers to is to look at the surrounding context.
Have you ever heard the English phrase "Of Like Mind"?
One can say "My friend and I are of like mind." "My neighbourhood is of like mind." Does it mean you and your friend share the exact same brain?
You and your neighbours share the exact same brain?
The fact that Jesus first repeatedly refers to his dad as a seperate person, shows what context he means when he finally says in this English
language translation "My Father and I are one."
John 10:32
Jesus answered them, Many good works have I shewed you from my Father; for which of those works do ye stone me?
John 10:37-38
37If I do not the works of my Father, believe me not.
38But if I do, though ye believe not me, believe the works: that ye may know, and believe, that the Father is in me, and I in him.
Jesus is again repeating that his powers (the works he does) comes not from him, but from his father. Then he says if he does not do what his father
wants, then don't follow Jesus. How to know what his father's will? By comparing what Jesus does and seeing if its in line with the old testement.
And what's the intent, and result, of the works, or powers, of Jesus. (He could've been a fallen angel, or a demon, or Satan, or some other being
for all everyone back then could've known.)
Jesus then says, forget about him. Look at his works. Look at his results, his intentions. Is Jesus going around killing people? Ruling, conquoring,
and lording over people? Pillaging, ravaging, and plundering?
Yes Jesus says Yahweh is in Jesus, and Jesus is in Yahweh. Just like man is
made in Yahweh's image, and likeness, the same can be said that
Yahweh is in man, and man is in Yahweh. Yahweh is in us, since Yahweh is in us, we are in Yahweh. Same with Jesus, the angels, and other beings Yahweh
(the god of the Bible) made. Just like when a husband and wife become
one flesh the husband is in the wife, and the wife is in the husband.
They're one.
Originally posted by dbrandt
The Jews understood Jesus’ statement to be a claim to be God. In the following verses, Jesus never corrects the Jews by saying, “I did not
claim to be God.” That indicates Jesus was truly saying He was God by declaring, “I and the Father are one” (John 10:30).
Jesus never corrects the Jews, because from Jesus' point of view, there's
nothing to correct. Next, the Jews who were confronting Jesus were
being influenced by Satan. And/or by demons. (good angels turned bad.) Their intention wasn't to find out for sure if Jesus was a son of
Yahweh, or Yahweh Himself. Their intention was to kill Jesus.
If you believe from that one quote "I and the Father are one", Jesus ment Jesus and Yahweh are the exact same person. Even though before it, and
after it, Jesus specifically says Jesus and Yahweh are seperate, distinct people..... then you must believe a husband and wife morph into 1 person, 1
body, and are the exact same person after they marry? Since the Bible says a husband and wife become one, become one flesh.
Originally posted by dbrandt
John 8:58 is another example. Jesus proclaimed, “I tell you the truth, Jesus answered, before Abraham was born, I am!” Again, in response, the
Jews take up stones in an attempt to stone Jesus (John 8:59). Jesus announcing His identity as “I am” is a direct application of the Old
Testament name for God (Exodus 3:14). Why would the Jews again want to stone Jesus if He hadn’t said something they believed to be blasphemous,
namely, a claim to be God?
In Exodus 3:14,
it is misstranslated on purpose from the original Old Hebrew, and Hebrew! Need more proof? Turn in your Bible
to Psalm 83:18. That verse bluntly, explicitly, blatantly, states what God's specific name is. And it is not "I Am". It's not "Lord God", or
"God Lord", or "The Lord", or "The God". If you're using the King James Version of the Bible (KJV) then it should have an accurate translation
of Psalm 83:18. In the
original Old Hebrew and Hebrew it state's God's specific name alllll over the Bible! So even the KJV is roughly 95%
accurate translation. But it gets Psalm 83:18 translated right.
Next "I Am" isn't a name. It's a descriptive title. Simular to saying "God is". Or the long version - "God has no beginning nor ending. Time
means nothing to God. God simply is."
But let's stick with your example in Exodus 3:14. Let's look at the surrounding verses, which are on the same topic, which means they define the
context:
Exodus 3:13-16
13And Moses said unto God, Behold, when I come unto the children of Israel, and shall say unto them, The God of your fathers hath sent
me unto you; and they shall say to me, What is his name? what shall I say unto them?
14And God said unto Moses, I AM THAT I AM: and he said, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, I AM hath sent me unto you.
Pause here a moment. Ummm.... let's see here. God's name is "I Am"... what!? Baal, Marduk, Enki, Jesus, the Son of Dawn, Zeus, Apollo, Anu, and I
Am. O..... K. Can you say... a part of the Bible that's been misstranslated
on purpose.
15And God said moreover unto Moses, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, the LORD God of your fathers, the God of
Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, hath sent me unto you: this is my name for ever, and this is my memorial unto all generations.
Hold it! Hold it! FIRST it reads that God is talking to Moshe. Then God tells Moshe God's name is I Am.
But now... God is saying his name is
LORD God. What the heck? Oh yeah 'lord' in all capital letters is supppose to be different than 'lord' with the letter 'L' capitalized?!?
Can you say
the people who misstranslated the Bible into English can't even do a good job covering their tracks?
16Go, and gather the elders of Israel together, and say unto them, The LORD God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, of Isaac, and of Jacob,
appeared unto me, saying, I have surely visited you, and seen that which is done to you in Egypt:
Guess what? Muhahahaaaa! Get off your lazy arse, go find a Jewish rabbi who speaks, and read Old Hebrew/Hebrew. And ask to look at his Torah. (Torah
is simply the Hebrew word for 'Bible'.) And... guess what's
really written in the original Old Hebrew/Hebrew where it says "LORD
God"? Here's a hint:
The Hebrew word for 'lord' is adonai. And that word adonai never ever never appears anywhere in the above verses. Nor does it appear in Psalm
83:18.
It's very important YOU see and read this with your own eyes for yourself from a Torah, and/or Jewish Rabbi. IF you really do
believe in the Bible, you'll go do this as soon as you can.
You'll be like "What the heck?! 95% of all Bibles are misstranslated on purpose!? And even the best translated Bibles like the KJV are 10%
misstranslated on purpose?! I can't believe I'm reading different stuff
from the original language that modern Bibles are translated
from!"
Originally posted by dbrandt
John 1:1 says that “the Word was God.” John 1:14 says that “the Word became flesh.” This clearly indicates that Jesus is God in the flesh.
In the words of Firemarshal Bill, or whatever was the name of Jim Carey's character on that TV show "
In Living Color".....
"Let Me Show Ya Somethin'!!!" :
First, here's the quote you're referring to:
John 1-3
King James Version (KJV)
John 1
1In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
2The same was in the beginning with God.
3All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made.
In the beginning was the Word. OK, let's say this is or was, Jesus back when he was in his non-human form. He's known as "the Word". Since this
is an English language translation from the original Old Hebrew/Hebrew let's look at something closely. The letter 'w' is capitalized. This means
'Word' is a noun. A person, place, or thing.
Then it says the Word was with god. Being with someone doesn't mean you and someone are the exact same people. The fact that it even says 'the word
was with God' shows that it's likely the Word was one of God's earliest creations. Maybe the first or second creation. (Check out the biography in
the Bible on the Son of Dawn, another of the first creations of God.)
Next we get to the part that says 'and the Word was God'. Could this mean the Word and God are the exact same people? If yes, then "In the
beginning was God. And God was with God. And God was God". Does that really make sense?
OR......
Is is simply saying how close a relationship the Word and God have? The same way in Genesis it says a husband and wife will
become one
flesh.
Ask yourself, what does "one flesh" mean? Aha!
99% of the time 'one flesh' would mean the exact same person. 'Of the
same flesh.' But of course it is not litteral, it is talking about
how on a non-litteral level a husband and wife become one person.
On a
non-litteral level the Word and God are one person. 2 seperate people, who's goals are soo interwoven, who's relationship is sooo
close, that they are one person. If you believe John 1:1 mean the Word and God are the exact same person, then you
must believe a husband and
wife morph into becoming 1, exact same person - litterally.
Originally posted by dbrandt
Thomas the disciple declared to Jesus, “My Lord and my God” (John 20:28). Jesus does not correct him. The Apostle Paul describes Him as,
“…our great God and Savior, Jesus Christ” (Titus 2:13). The Apostle Peter says the same, “…our God and Savior Jesus Christ” (2 Peter
1:1).
Slooow down. No where, in any of those verses, in the original Old Hebrew/Hebrew, does it specifically say Jesus (Yehushua) is the same person as
Yahweh.
"God" and "Lord" are
titles.
Corinthians 11:3
It states the pecking order.
Yahweh->Jesus->Man->Woman
Now why would the Bible, which you claim you trust and believe, say the head of Jesus is Jesus? Does that really make sense to you?
BTW, let's look at your own examples:
From John chapter 20...
John 20:17-18
17Jesus saith unto her, Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father: but go to my brethren, and say unto them,
I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and to my God, and your God.
18Mary Magdalene came and told the disciples that she had seen the LORD, and that he had spoken these things unto her.
WHOAH! Looooooooooook at that! Jesus exxxxplicitly says he's going to go to
his father. Jesus gets even more hardcore! Jesus goes on to say
his father is your father.
His God, is your God. WHOAH! Looooook at that!
According to you, Jesus is really saying he's going to go to himself? Jesus is the god of Jesus? Does this really, really, make sense?!?
This actually upholds my point that the specific
name of a person, has to be used, especially if the person
gives what their specific name
is. 'Lord' and 'god' are
titles, not names.
Thomas rightly called Jesus his lord, his god, since in Corinthians it says the pecking order is Jesus is above man. Jesus is a much, much, higher
level being than man. Is man equal to Jesus?
Angels are also higher level beings than man. But the reason why man doesn't call them 'lord' or 'god' is because Yahweh says so.
In the English language, the word lord and the word god are synonyms. (look at how 'lord' and 'god' are used interchangably throughout the Bible.
"And God said..." "And the Lord said"...)
Meaning someone who is above you. In Bible times wives called their husbands "My lord'. Sarah called her husband "My lord". Slaves called their
masters "My lord".
No where, does Thomas call Jesus by the name Yahweh.
Originally posted by dbrandt
The most important reason that Jesus has to be God is that if He is not God, His death would not have been sufficient to pay the penalty for the sins
of the whole world (1John 2:2).
Ummm... that verse you give to support your claim that Jesus and Yahweh are the exact same person says they are two different people.
1 John 2:1-2 (King James Version)
1My little children, these things write I unto you, that ye sin not. And if any man sin, we have an advocate with the Father, Jesus
Christ the righteous:
2And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.
An advocate is someone who represents you. For example, in the English language, a defense lawyer is sometimes called a 'public advocate'. That
verse you cite is saying Jesus, is our [us humans] "advocate with the Father". Jesus is our representative to Yahweh.
What does "
We have an advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ" mean to you?
Originally posted by dbrandt
Only God could pay such an infinite penalty (Romans 5:8; 2Corinthians 5:21). Jesus had to be God so that He could pay our debt. Jesus had to be man
so He could die.
Let's throughly dissect this, since the claim that Jesus and Yahweh are the exact same person is a very serious claim.
Let's check out the verses you listed that you say back up this claim:
Romans.....
Romans 5:8-19
8But God commendeth his love toward us, in that, while we were yet sinners, Christ died for us.
No where does that verse say God and Jesus are the exact same person. God (Yahweh) showes his love for us [humans, man] by having Jesus die for us.
God made someone named Christ die for the humans.
10For if, when we were enemies, we were reconciled to God by the death of his Son, much more, being reconciled, we shall be saved by
his life.
WHOAH! Hold it! Hold it! How can someone be their father,
and their own son at the same time?
These are 2 seperate people:
1. God
2. His Son
What does the phrase "his son" mean in the English language? "That's his son.", "His son had a car accident.", "His son died during
surgery.", "His son attended Harvard for 4 years."
11And not only so, but we also joy in God through our Lord Jesus Christ, by whom we have now received the atonement.
And here... it says we can get through to God through... God? Or get through to God through another being called Jesus?
12Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned:
See that? Yahweh is telling what the penalty is, and why it its. It's
not an "infinate" penalty. It's because of a
human man
that sin entered the world. (I have issues with this, but that's for a whole new thread and topic.
)
God (Yahweh) made a perfect man named Adam. Adam messed up the rest of the human race.
So what's the necessary ransome? The necessary sacrifice?
God has to make another man. And this 2nd man God makes has to somehow clear up
the mess of the
first man God made.
Verses 13-16 repeat this over and over.
17For if by one man's offence death reigned by one; much more they which receive abundance of grace and of the gift of
righteousness shall reign in life by one, Jesus Christ.)
Again, there is no "infinate penalty". No need for God himself to come to Earth and die. It's not that deep of a penalty. It was a
perfect
human creation of God that messed up. Which means God needs to
make another perfect human creation to set things
right.
18Therefore as by the offence of one judgment came upon all men to condemnation; even so by the righteousness of one the free gift came upon all
men unto justification of life.
19For as by one man's disobedience many were made sinners, so by the obedience of one shall many be made righteous.
And... it repeats its point yet again. It wasn't because of God's disobedience humans were made sinners. It was the disobedience of a
perfect
human that humans were made sinners. Which means the obedience of another
perfect human is needed to offset what the first perfect human
did. God doesn't need the obedience of God. Satan didn't offer God all the kingdoms of the world.
If Satan had enough power to decide if he could give or keep the Earth from God, ummm.... that'd mean he's just as powerful as God.
++++++++++++++++++
Next up, the other verse you give to back up your claim Yahweh and Jesus are the exact same person:
2 Corinthians 5:21
21For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.
It's very obvious it says he [God (which god? Yahweh)] made him [Jesus] to be a sacrifice for us [humans].
It doesn't say "He made
himself to be sin for us."
In the English language
"He made him" - It's talking about 2 different people.
is different than saying
"He made himself" - Is talking about 1 person.
Originally posted by dbrandt
The tit for tat thing on calling Jesus, Jesus or Yeshua is only confusing for people who don't know Him. It is a distraction and is pointless.
No. It's not a "distraction". And no way is it "pointless". It's
the truth. Yehushuah is the name of the son of Yahweh. "Jesus"
is simply a name whoever translated the Bible from Aramaic into Greek,
invented, and came up with.
Even the movie
Passion of Christ accuratly, brought this up. It was funny watching people in the audiance turning to each other going "What?
How come no one is calling him 'Jesus'?".
Because
no one in the Bible ever called him 'Jesus'. Not even his enemies.
Blame Roman Emperor Constantine who 99% watered down the original Bible, the translations, misstranslations, on and on. Do you really want to read
the Bible? Take a
freeeeee Hebrew course, and read it for yourself in its original Old Hebrew/Hebrew. Many Rabbi's, and Jewish Synagogue's
give free courses to anyone. Some charge a fee. But it's not that much.
See how you corrected me for calling you "DrBrandt"? And that's just 1 letter. Jesus and Yehushuah is very, very, very, different. Yehushuah on
purpose told everyone to
call him Yehushuah.
Now, you, or I, can make our
informed choice to go on saying 'Jesus'. But its an informed choice. Since you and I know what his real, true,
name is. Many people
aren't making an informed choice when they use 'Jesus'. They don't even know that its not the name he
used. They don't even know that 'Jesus' is nowhere, nowhere, in the original Bible. They don't even know that 'Jesus' is a name simply invented
by whoever was translating the original Bible into Greek. 'Jesus' is a Greek word.
I dare you to look up Psalm 83:18 in your Bible. If your not using the King James Version, then look it up in the KJV.
Next, find a Rabbi, and ask them to help you look it up in the original Hebrew Torah (Bible).
God's specific name appears hundreds of times in the original Old Hebrew/Hebrew Bible. Which is what all other Bibles are
supposed to be
translated from
Emperor Constantine on purpose had it virtually erased from all Bible versions, all Bible translations. (Psalm 83:18 was toooo blatant to be erased
from 5%-10% of Bible versions, and translations, like the KJV.)
There's toooo many Bible verses
that leave no room for error, or missinterpetation, when they state that Yahweh and Jesus (Yehushuah) are 2
seperate people. Unless you also believe husbands and wives morph into 1 exact same person cuz hey... the Bible says they become one.
[edit on 10-4-2005 by OpenSecret2012]