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originally posted by: Xtrozero
originally posted by: chr0naut
It seems odd to me that someone thinks that what Biden did, could somehow excuse Trump from what he did.
If someone does something against the law, they cannot argue that others also broke the law. It does not excuse them of their actions.
It comes back to what did Trump do illegal? Was it illegal for Trump to ask for an investigation into Biden, Hillary, 2016 elections etc? The left's logic is because Biden happened to be one of 16 (at the time) candidates he should be untouchable by Trump and anything else is wrong. It is funny they think this way when they felt it was OK for Hillary to pay for an investigation while creating fake narratives on Trump to have the FBI wiretap and use the FICA court etc. NOT while he was just a candidate of a dozen BUT as the Republican nomination..holy crap...we don't see eye to eye on much but if you can't see this then I'm not sure what to think.
originally posted by: DanDanDat
originally posted by: chr0naut
a reply to: carewemust
It seems odd to me that someone thinks that what Biden did, could somehow excuse Trump from what he did.
If someone does something against the law, they cannot argue that others also broke the law. It does not excuse them of their actions.
It sounds like Guiliani is suggesting that Biden's actions somehow excuse the President. They don't.
As the head of the executive branch of government it is a presidents job to seek out and investigate corruption. This does not change if the corruption is being perpetrated by a political rival. If it did all a nonferrous person
need do is become a politician in order to save himself from criminal charges.
As head of the executive branch of government it is the a presidents job to use diplomatic means (withholding aid) to get other countries to act in a manner best for America. Investigating American corruption for example.
Ascertaining Biden's guilt is vitally important to knowing whether Trump abused his power or was carrying out the job he was elected to do.
If some evidence of corruption directly involving Joe Biden was discovered in the Ukraine, do the Ukrainians have jurisdiction to prosecute?
The argument that Trump is excused for the same crime he is suggesting Joe Biden did, is childish.
originally posted by: chr0naut
If Joe Biden did something illegal by threatening to withhold aid, then Trump is tarred by the same brush. He did the same thing (as many pro-Trump posters have said). The difference between the two situations is potential motive and political outcome.
If Joe Biden did something wrong, then he should be prosecuted. And, so then should Trump, for doing the same.
The argument that Trump is excused for the same crime he is suggesting Joe Biden did, is childish. If what they both did was wrong, they both are guilty.
originally posted by: carewemust
a reply to: chr0naut
If the charges are found to be unconstitutional, Justice Roberts can throw them out. The House will need to build a better mousetrap next time.
originally posted by: TheRedneck
There is no evidence that Donald Trump withheld funds appropriated for an investigation into a political opponent, despite a House investigation that ignored about every legal principle in existence. The claim is that there was sufficient suspicion to investigate. Doesn't need to be evidence for an investigation... the investigation is supposed to find out if there is evidence so future prosecution can happen.
Suspicion - > Investigation - > Evidence - > Prosecution. Not Evidence - > Investigation - > Prosecution.
TheRedneck
originally posted by: chr0naut
Justice Roberts can possibly throw them out, but I'm not sure how the charges could be argued to be unconstitutional?
Definitely if the articles of "Obstruction of Congress" and "Abuse of Power" are unconstitutional, it would follow that any others could make similar defense and get off. This means that the articles must be taken seriously or they will create a precedent of a futile impeachment process and therefore a powerless and broken Constitution.
I don't think any article would be unconstitutional.
originally posted by: chr0naut
originally posted by: DanDanDat
originally posted by: chr0naut
a reply to: carewemust
It seems odd to me that someone thinks that what Biden did, could somehow excuse Trump from what he did.
If someone does something against the law, they cannot argue that others also broke the law. It does not excuse them of their actions.
It sounds like Guiliani is suggesting that Biden's actions somehow excuse the President. They don't.
As the head of the executive branch of government it is a presidents job to seek out and investigate corruption. This does not change if the corruption is being perpetrated by a political rival. If it did all a nonferrous person
Ah, the iron-y (or absence therof).
need do is become a politician in order to save himself from criminal charges.
As head of the executive branch of government it is the a presidents job to use diplomatic means (withholding aid) to get other countries to act in a manner best for America. Investigating American corruption for example.
Ascertaining Biden's guilt is vitally important to knowing whether Trump abused his power or was carrying out the job he was elected to do.
I am fairly sure that the oath of office defines the Presidential role:
"I do solemnly swear (or affirm) that I will faithfully execute the Office of President of the United States, and will to the best of my Ability, preserve, protect and defend the Constitution of the United States."
The Constitution clearly gives investigatory powers to Congress (Article 1, Section 8,"to establish tribunals inferior to the Supreme Court") and Senate (in the case of impeachment Article 1 section 2, clause 5) but is less clear as to the investigatory powers of the President.
Giuliani said that Article 2 Section 3 of the Constitution gives the President the imperative to investigate but it says no such thing. Here is the text:
"He (the President) shall from time to time give to the Congress information of the state of the union, and recommend to their consideration such measures as he shall judge necessary and expedient; he may, on extraordinary occasions, convene both Houses, or either of them, and in case of disagreement between them, with respect to the time of adjournment, he may adjourn them to such time as he shall think proper; he shall receive ambassadors and other public ministers; he shall take care that the laws be faithfully executed, and shall commission all the officers of the United States."
originally posted by: Irishhaf
What I expect is dismissal or automatic acquittal, what I want is a full blown trial trumps ego will necessitate him burning down the house to get the people coming for him.
Can someone explain to me if Trump was looking into Burisma or did he specifically ask about Hunter Biden?
originally posted by: TheRedneck
"Obstruction of Congress" could be considered unconstitutional, because the actions in the Article of Impeachment are completely Constitutional. Nowhere does it state that the President must provide all requested information to Congress... indeed, the Founding Fathers specifically stated in their writings that the main purpose of the Judicial Branch was to mediate differences between the Executive and Legislative. With such a cure for the disagreement existing as an integral part of the Constitution, impeachment becomes unconstitutional on that grounds.
"Abuse of Power" is likely another matter completely. The phrase "maladministration" was actually rejected by Madison because it was felt to be too broad, and "Abuse of Power" is essentially the same thing. However, I don't think such a charge in impeachment is unconstitutional because there is no other remedy in the Constitution as there is in "Obstruction of Congress." The problem with this charge in this case is that no abuse of power can be shown; Trump was actually following the law itself when holding funding to verify Ukraine's anti-corruption efforts.
Following the law cannot be abuse of power by definition.
TheRedneck
originally posted by: TheRedneck
a reply to: chr0naut
If some evidence of corruption directly involving Joe Biden was discovered in the Ukraine, do the Ukrainians have jurisdiction to prosecute?
Yes.
If someone uses a company in New Zealand to launder money, does New Zealand have the authority to investigate it?
Burisma is a Ukrainian company. The investigation was into Burisma. Hunter Biden just happened to be sitting on the Board of Burisma at the time and was CEO.
Doesn't matter that he was a US citizen, if Burisma is located in Ukraine. He is still bound by Ukrainian law when he does business there.
You are really clutching at straws this time.
TheRedneck
originally posted by: TheRedneck
a reply to: chr0naut
The argument that Trump is excused for the same crime he is suggesting Joe Biden did, is childish.
No one is making that claim except you.
There is no evidence that Donald Trump withheld funds appropriated for an investigation into a political opponent, despite a House investigation that ignored about every legal principle in existence. The claim is that there was sufficient suspicion to investigate. Doesn't need to be evidence for an investigation... the investigation is supposed to find out if there is evidence so future prosecution can happen.
Suspicion - > Investigation - > Evidence - > Prosecution. Not Evidence - > Investigation - > Prosecution.
TheRedneck