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And those citizens are guaranteed to be able to personally keep and bear those firearms (i.e. own guns). Also, it clearly states this right shall not be infringed, which means not blocked or prevented.
Excepting slaves, of course. How about women?
In 1780, most everyone was considered to be part of the militia.
So, they are in order of importance?
The 2nd amendment stands second for a very good reason.
I do, indeed, disagree. But I have little problem with the 2nd. I have a problem with those who claim it means unfettered access to weapons.
Without the first and second amendments, the rest are, ultimately, meaningless.
originally posted by: Phage
a reply to: Krakatoa
So, in closing, a "well regulated militia" means an orderly group of citizens, well trained in the handling of firearms.
What do you think about what Article I (you know, the part before the Bill of Rights) says about what the militia is? Do you think the 2nd Amendment stands alone from the rest of the Constitution?
originally posted by: Phage
a reply to: seagull
Is that really that hard to understand?
Is Article I so hard to understand when it defines the role and organization of the militia?
Do you think the 2nd Amendment stands separate from the rest of the Constitution?
That is not what the Constitution says is the role of the militia.
Over time, we eventually did create our own standing army. Then the state National Guard. But, each of those is controlled by the government (like the British Regulars were controlled by King George III). So, it applies now more than ever, since we have American Regulars right here, everywhere, in our midst. The 2nd provide the lowly citizen the ability to keep and bear arms to effect a defense against our own "uppity government" that the founders feared.
Tell me, do the states appoint officers of that standing army? Do they train that standing army?
This was all when we did not have a standing army.
originally posted by: elysiumfire
Krakatoa:
And those citizens are guaranteed to be able to personally keep and bear those firearms (i.e. own guns). Also, it clearly states this right shall not be infringed, which means not blocked or prevented.
Yep, you make some points, but...as much as it self-appoints the right to 'bear and keep arms', nowhere does it state anything about the usage of those arms, but it does imply them to be used only as a militia. Using the very same dictionary, look at the definition of 'Militia'. It doesn't state it as an 'orderly group', but as a 'standing army' (presumably) under government control.
You see, the Founding Fathers not only had to look out for 'enemies foreign', they also had to look out for ' enemies domestic', and that didn't just mean the government, it also meant people disgruntled with the government. It had to protect itself and have the consented authority to implement laws for the benefit of all the people. Which is why the draftings had to take into account all the requirements of the other states at the time.
originally posted by: Phage
a reply to: randomtangentsrme
Tell me, do the states appoint officers of that standing army? Do they train that standing army?
This was all when we did not have a standing army.
originally posted by: Agit8dChop
I hope your kids and loved ones never have to suffer like the people in Vegas - even if thats what you need to happen to open your god damn eyes!
originally posted by: Phage
a reply to: randomtangentsrme
Tell me, do the states appoint officers of that standing army? Do they train that standing army?
This was all when we did not have a standing army.
A well regulated Militia, being necessary to the security of a free State, the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed.
originally posted by: Krakatoa
originally posted by: Phage
a reply to: randomtangentsrme
Tell me, do the states appoint officers of that standing army? Do they train that standing army?
This was all when we did not have a standing army.
The militia of the day? No. See my other post that answers this question.
The Army and Guard of today? Yes. They are the equivalent of the British Regulars of the day.
Your presumption is incorrect. It was managed by the towns (which were much more independent and self sufficient at that time), but controlled by the local commanders who were local citizens. They were elected to those positions by each town...as each town had their own militia.
originally posted by: Deaf Alien
I'll just leave this here:
originally posted by: Krakatoa
originally posted by: Phage
a reply to: Krakatoa
So, in closing, a "well regulated militia" means an orderly group of citizens, well trained in the handling of firearms.
What do you think about what Article I (you know, the part before the Bill of Rights) says about what the militia is? Do you think the 2nd Amendment stands alone from the rest of the Constitution?
No, it's all additive. At that time, people owned their own firearms because they needed to eat, they needed to protect themselves and families against bad people (yes, there were bad people back then too). See, in 1775, King George III sent a standing army of British regulars (there is that word again meaning well trained soldiers) to the Massachusetts Bay Colony to confiscate all the arms, powder, and cannon. We know it now as the Battles of Lexington and Concord. This is the main reason for the 2nd Amendment. It is a direct result of those actions by King George III to disarm the population in an attempt to squash a growing rebellion. The founders were well aware of that, and created the 2nd Amendment to assure that our own fledgling government would be able to be challenged if they got too "uppity" and overbearing trying to control the citizens.
They also feared a standing army too, and preferred a citizen militia. In order to do that they needed to assure they were well regulated (trained). Ever wonder why so many towns and cities in the east have "town commons" or "town greens"? The purpose was to provide a place for required monthly training and drilling of the town militia to assure they were well regulated.
Over time, we eventually did create our own standing army. Then the state National Guard. But, each of those is controlled by the government (like the British Regulars were controlled by King George III). So, it applies now more than ever, since we have American Regulars right here, everywhere, in our midst. The 2nd provides the lowly citizen the ability to keep and bear arms to effect a defense against our own "uppity government" that the founders feared.
Now, the argument about machine guns, tanks, missiles, nukes comes in.
Nukes: Well, does anyone honestly think the U.S. government would actually use a nuke on its own citizens? Hardly. Take that off the table.
Tanks & Missiles: If it ever came to that, I assure you many, a majority in fact, of the regular soldiers would refuse to fire upon American citizens in that manner. They pledged an oath to uphold the Constitution from enemies both foreign and domestic. And many of those soldiers take that oath to heart. And for those that didn't, a guerilla warfare approach will make the fight too expensive to maintain, while the big fish countries around the world provided aid to the rebellion in order to make the USA fail (like the French did during the American revolution). Take that off the table.
Machine-guns: Here, we have a valid debate. So, the citizens of the 18th Century were allowed to keep and use firearms that were equally deadly as the British army, which included cannons. Today, we do NOT have that same equality since the 1930's. Yet, we continue to give small allowances over time. Slowly eating away at that amendment.
Slowly stripping the lawful citizens from their right, without due process.