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KJV is an archaic and extremely terrible translation. You are aware of that?
a reply to: Seede KJV is Satan's translation: ==>
KJV: And I stood upon the sand of the sea ==>
ESV: The dragon stood on the shore of the sea.
originally posted by: Utnapisjtim
a reply to: Seede
Forgery in KJV:
en.wikipedia.org...
originally posted by: Utnapisjtim
a reply to: Seede
KJV is Satan's translation:
==> KJV: And I stood upon the sand of the sea
==> ESV: The dragon stood on the shore of the sea.
KJV is te Bible of Satan
- Why would God the creator,.....create more then one heaven?
He then made another terrestrial heaven in Genesis 1:7-8 as He then separated the waters and made a firmament (heaven).
Verse 1: In the beginning God created the heaven and the earth. This is what God is going to create, and in that order.
This is what Moses saw according to verse 2.
a reply to: Seede Hashamayim means two names alt. two heavens.
10. And God called the dry land Earth; and the gathering together of the waters called he Seas: and God saw that it was good.
a reply to: Seede /shamayim/ is plural, or rather dual. KJV's translation Heaven is fallacy. Enen Textus Receptus which KJV relies upon in most 95% of its translation translates Shamayim as Heavens.
When it comes to what God actually created,.....there should be no doubt that God did create the heaven and the Earth.
Earth never existed in Verse 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, and 8. That is pritty specificly described and explained in Genesis Chapter 1 verse 2.
If Earth is without form and void...... What did Earth actually look like if Earth does not have a form or a void? That is how you describe that Earth is not there.
But you neglected to finish that God created the heaven and earth in day one. You cannot neglect that the text specifies "Day One".
You said that the earth was created in verse 1 and now you say that it was not created in verses 2-8.
So, you are telling me that God created something that have no form and no void? When Earth does not have a form: WHat form does it have? If it is created it must have a form of some kind. When Earth have no form it does not exist. That is even confirmed when it is mentioned that Earth have no void.
originally posted by: Utnapisjtim
originally posted by: SarMegahhikkitha
a reply to: Utnapisjtim
I'm not writing for your benefit, I'm writing for the benefit of others who don't know better, since I know you have no intention of actually reading what I write. If you think the example with "lighten" and "brighten" is absurd, then congratulations, you've just called your own claim absurd. Both claims are: a plural ending that had ceased to be productive in the author's time can be applied randomly. In my case, it's the /n/ plural being applied to "light", in your case, it's the dual plural being applied to "shem" (after THE DUAL CEASED TO BE PRODUCTIVE BY THE TIME OF BIBLICAL HEBREW). That means Moses couldn't just add "-ayim" to words randomly; only a limited number of words retained their ancient dual forms in his time. "Shem" is not one of them. Showing me other words that retained dual forms does not address my claim. Showing me that "shem" is masculine does not address my claim; so are avot, shulhanot, yeraqot, and halonot, yet do they all have dual forms? Gender had nothing to do with the reason "oxen" and "children" retained their /n/ plurals.
The only thing you can do to counter my claim is prove the usage of the dual form of "shem" in Biblical/Mishnaic Hebrew or prove that the dual form continued to be a productive category in Biblical Hebrew.
Oh dear. You keep rambling on claiming verbs can be plural in English, there never were, there sure aren't such a thing now, and I honestly doubt there will ever be plural verbs in any language. Read what you write for heaven's sake. It's like saying the genitive -s suffix in English is or once was (historical anachronism) the plural -s suffix. You are WRONG. And as for there not being any dual nouns in Biblical Hebrew. Hah bloody hah. Like I have shown there is one in the first verse of Genesis.
There are several nouns in Biblical Hebrew that takes the dual form. The nouns /mayim/ (waters/floods) and /shemayim/ (heavens, skies, alt. names) are two such. And here you have 28 occurences of /enayim/ dual of /ayin/ means (pair of) eye(s):
==> biblehub.com...
I could list a bunch of others, but I don't like to feed trolls, so shu! Your opinion may have been made popular, but there should be no doubt that hehe, the Hebrew biblical texts contain quite a few examples of the dual form.
Strong's Hebrew:
H3767 /kera/ «legs», has dual
H3610 /kilayim/ «kinds», is dual (of H3608 /kele/ «seperation»)
H7620 /shabua/ «weeks», has dual
H3608 /kele/ «prison», has dual
These are four more nouns taking the dual form. So again: You are utterly dead wrong! Your assertion may be popular at the moment, but the fallacy is so obvious. There are plenty examples of dual forms of nouns in the bible.
If you think the example with "lighten" and "brighten"– is absurd, then congratulations, you've just called your own claim absurd. Both claims are: a plural ending that had ceased to be productive in the author's time can be applied randomly.