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originally posted by: roadgravel
a reply to: Jacobu12
If you are implying the stamp is 2 hours earlier for the call then
Could be the capturing system is in the Mountain timezone so the time is marked local, 2 hours early. I don't know for sure without researching it.
originally posted by: roadgravel
a reply to: Jacobu12
I didn't see a website typo of 16. Not sure what you are mentioning. The data image show the 7:15:34 start at the first call shown.
Surprised you are not questioning the Dec 31 1969 dates... hint: 0 value.
Because the customer dialed “0”, the typing implied, there was no “Terminating #” (meaning no recipient) except for “0”. The call was then handed off to the AT&T Operator and the “domain” changed to OSPS. This 102-second call, to be billed via the AT&T Operator, was not traceable to a recipient listed on the raw data report, and there was no credit card number showing on it, so the call, as recorded later on the trial exhibit graphic, was deemed to have been made to an “unknown number”.
originally posted by: roadgravel
Because the customer dialed “0”, the typing implied, there was no “Terminating #” (meaning no recipient) except for “0”. The call was then handed off to the AT&T Operator and the “domain” changed to OSPS. This 102-second call, to be billed via the AT&T Operator, was not traceable to a recipient listed on the raw data report, and there was no credit card number showing on it, so the call, as recorded later on the trial exhibit graphic, was deemed to have been made to an “unknown number”.
This might be stating that operator dialed calls that are handed off to another telco won't have the destination number. This system will not be aware of the number. That could explain the empty numbers.
The author of the article can probably be more informative the me. I don't have time now to really get in depth into that data.
I have posted two times discussing this already, two days ago, read what i said and stop asking me the same question.
Sorry friend, yes or no answers work sometimes, and then sometimes they don't.
Analysis of the FDR shows it to be a forgery, according to Dennis Cimino, and he makes a very persuasive case. So yes or no on how many feet above the ground AA77 had to be is absurd and impossible, because we are talking about a myth. AA77 did not strike the pentagon.
Trying to split hairs on this issue is an exercise in frustration, because it is a myth and cannot be proved. It is rather an exercise in mental masturbation, because it didn't happen.
It's possible, even probable, that some sort of airliner made a low level fly by, but it did not strike the building. That is a "no" answer.