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There are no contemporary historical accounts of anything Christian. They destroyed everything, even the Greek oracles, since they spoke on behalf of Christendom.
originally posted by: BELIEVERpriest
a reply to: Utnapisjtim
So because you allege, there are no historical accounts to support anything you say, its all Paul's fault? How is that objective?
originally posted by: BELIEVERpriest
a reply to: Utnapisjtim
So then your theory has no foundation. John was not referring to Paul in Revelation. John was using OT prophecy to build a map for the future of Christianity, leading up to the interrupted 70th Week. The Whore and the seven-headed beast was the mingling of Christianity and politics to establish a succession of theocratic emperors who would oppress the world. Paul had nothing to do with it. He was not rejected by the other apostles.
a reply to: Seede You are aware that early Christianity was in conflict with both Rome and Jerusalem? Can you site any corpus of any Christian book (other than those of Saul Paulus) from the 1st century that has survived? Thought so. There is none. And the early Christians wrote a lot and kept Tannakhs and Torahs, but Rome and Jerusalem burnt these.
Paul Teaches In Original Sin But Jesus Contradicts
Romans 5:12-21
Verse 12 is the primary proof-text that Augustine used to make his case for original sin. The end of verse 12 in Greek says ἐφ’ ᾧ πάντες ἥμαρτον. Jerome mistranslated this phrase into Latin as “in whom all sinned,” which he assumed to modify Adam. This is the reason that Augustine made the claim that all humanity sinned “in Adam,” which is the basis for centuries of claiming that all humanity should be blamed for Adam’s sin which they committed either by existing primordially in his semen or, as later theologians contended, because Adam was the “federal head” of humanity. All of this is based on a translation error. Not only is it absurd that Jerome made ἐφ’ into “in,” but he connected the ᾧ pronoun in the ἐφ’ ᾧ clause back to Adam instead of “death,” which is what makes the most sense syntactically. If the ἐφ’ ᾧ is connected to death instead, then “death spread to all by which all have sinned,” which would make death the spiritual reality that is the source of sin instead of the punishment for sin (which is how the Eastern Orthodox interpret this passage).
Source
Text "death spread to all by which all have sinned,” Or more correctly rebirth and then death, as in never ending reincarnation. So how do you try to convince todays christians that Jesus did not die for their sins (as if GOD would accept human sacrifice anyway given thou shall not kill!). That Christians don't have a special free ticket to heaven, but must earn it, like everyone else, by loving GOD and each other, more so than ourselves.
originally posted by: Seede
a reply to: glend
The entire purpose of the advent of Jesus was to release the justified spirits who were imprisoned in Sheol