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Nah...Jesus warned his disciples about Paul. Just didn't name names. The book of James is a direct, point by point, rebuttal to Galatians and Romans.
originally posted by: DISRAELI
originally posted by: Matrixsurvivor
What Paul taught in Romans was that ONCE you are saved (by believing in your heart and stating it with your mouth) that Jesus died for your sins...THEN and only then are you discharged from the law. So, answer this question, how could Jesus have not stoned the woman, if HE HADN'T even been crucified yet? The law was still in effect (technically).
For Jesus to have been the perfect, spotless, lamb...who obeyed ALL the law in order to fulfill it, He would have had to have stoned that woman. Yet, He didn't.
The only way around that is to say Jesus was God in the flesh. Yet, He Himself stated that the Father was HIS GOD, AS WELL.
Another way of putting it is to say that Jesus, too, was being guided more by the Spirit than by the "written code".
originally posted by: craig732
a reply to: BELIEVERpriest
So how about the "until heaven and earth disappear" part. I don't know about heaven, but earth appears to still be here.
originally posted by: DISRAELI
a reply to: craig732
The short answer to your question is;
"Now we are discharged from the law, dead to that which held us captive, so that we serve not under the old written code [e.g. Leviticus] but in the new life of the Spirit"- Romans ch7 v6.
originally posted by: Matrixsurvivor
a reply to: BELIEVERpriest
Because Jesus fulfilled the Levitical Law. That is why He stopped the Pharisees from stoning the adulteress.
How did He fulfill it? I mean, exactly? He would have had to stone the woman, to fulfill it. Jesus fulfilled NOTHING of the Levititcal law....nothing. He broke every single law that was in place by Yahweh. Name ONE He fulfilled. Just one.
All of the Law was Accomplished/Fulfilled when Jesus died on the cross for our sins. So the answer to your question is in the verse you cited.
No, you still haven't said HOW he fulfilled ALL the law. He would have had to of DONE the law, to fulfill it. So, once again, name any law that He fulfilled. Dying on the cross doesn't count. In order to be the perfect sacrifice, and the spotless lamb, He would have had to have FULFILLED the law. He didn't. He constantly violated it, yet he was sinless. How do you rectify those two things?
originally posted by: enterthestage
More than Leviticus, Torah is Law, all 5 books. The Pentateuch is Torah is Law. Paul wants to replace Torah with his teachings!?! Egomaniac is he, Paul.
originally posted by: DISRAELI
a reply to: DarkvsLight29
How "turned into"?
An OP asking Christians about their use of the Bible is Bible-oriented from the outset.
What else are you expecting from a thread in the Theology forum?
The Torah hasn't been replaced and never was supposed to be.
originally posted by: DISRAELI
originally posted by: enterthestage
More than Leviticus, Torah is Law, all 5 books. The Pentateuch is Torah is Law. Paul wants to replace Torah with his teachings!?! Egomaniac is he, Paul.
No, he wants to replace the Torah with the guidance of the Holy Spirit. Precisely what Jesus was doing.
originally posted by: NOTurTypical
a reply to: enterthestage
The Torah hasn't been replaced and never was supposed to be.
Then why did Jesus say that His two great commands fulfil the law and prophets? Was He lying, or instituting a new covenant in His blood at that time that the prophets said would one day come?
originally posted by: NOTurTypical
a reply to: enterthestage
I realize this, but generally when people say that we need to follow the law they don't mean we need to keep the two great commands of Jesus which the law and prophets hang upon, they usually mean that Gentiles are bound by the 613 + 10 laws under the Mosaic Law which is false. Nobody can follow them, not since 70 AD.
originally posted by: enterthestage
a reply to: NOTurTypical
You can follow them...by doing the 2 Jesus simplified them into.