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originally posted by: ServantOfTheLamb
................................
So I have no idea what you believe from this post other than Christianity is based on a false premise. You say the premise is false but give no reason for believing it is false other than because you think so....You also did nothing to provide a more rational view than Christianity.
originally posted by: BuzzyWigs
a reply to: nonspecific
They have a "witches creed" adapted from the words of crowley.
"Do as though will is the whole of the law, And it harms none.
The ends justify the means and we are all personally responsible for our own action.
SCREEECH!!!!
No - that is NOT the witches' creed.
It is:
The Wiccan Rede /ˈriːd/ is a statement that provides the key moral system in the Neopagan religion of Wicca and certain other related Witchcraft-based faiths. A common form of the Rede is An it harm none, do what ye will.
The word "Rede" derives from Middle English, meaning "advice" or "counsel" and being closely related to the German Rat or Norwegian råd. "An" is an archaic Middle English conjunction, meaning "if." "Ye" is an archaic or dialectal form of "you" (nominative plural).
Other variants of the Rede include:
Eight words the Wiccan Rede fulfill,
An it harm none do what ye will.
It means, "do whatever you like AS LONG AS IT HURTS NO ONE."
gah.
Just saying. gah. Please look further into the 'rede', and archaic English FOR YOURSELF, before jumping on the wagon of some idiotic, poorly educated dimwits who don't know what they're talking about.
I guess your one of those angry Wiccans we hear so much about then?
Really?
originally posted by: ServantOfTheLamb
a reply to: nonspecific
My personal opinion is that there is no Right and Wrong. It is all subjective.
This is ethical nihilism. No way around it, and yet if this is your belief its seems to be in complete contradiction to your previous statement "I base my life on an internal understanding of right and wrong." To say one bases his life on an internal understanding of right and wrong while simultaneously believing there isn't such a thing as right and wrong is the same as saying:
I base my life on an internal understanding of nothing and nothing.
That's a good lesson to learn because to take something that is not your's and is immoral.
Wait a minute its immoral? You just said there was no such thing as Right and Wrong. No such thing as Moral or Immoral. What are you even trying to appeal to ? Your world view says we have no such thing.
They have a "witches creed" adapted from the words of crowley. "Do as though will is the whole of the law, And it harms none.
Well Wicca must not study philosophy very much. To say do as though will is the whole law and IT HARMS NONE. Is easily shown to be false. They should have left the capitalized part off because Hitler willed to drive a whole country to commit genocide..obviously harmed a few million jews..seems to contradict itself immediately .
originally posted by: AinElohim
yep... and Roman Law didn't influence diddly squat.
The Codex Justinianus and the Institutes of Justinian were known in Western Europe, and along with the earlier code of Theodosius II, served as models for a few of the Germanic law codes; however, the Digest portion was largely ignored for several centuries until around 1070, when a manuscript of the Digest was rediscovered in Italy. This was done mainly through the works of glossars who wrote their comments between lines (glossa interlinearis), or in the form of marginal notes (glossa marginalis). From that time, scholars began to study the ancient Roman legal texts, and to teach others what they learned from their studies. The center of these studies was Bologna. The law school there gradually developed into Europe's first university.
The students who were taught Roman law in Bologna (and later in many other places) found that many rules of Roman law were better suited to regulate complex economic transactions than were the customary rules, which were applicable throughout Europe. For this reason, Roman law, or at least some provisions borrowed from it, began to be re-introduced into legal practice, centuries after the end of the Roman empire. This process was actively supported by many kings and princes who employed university-trained jurists as counselors and court officials and sought to benefit from rules like the famous Princeps legibus solutus est ("The sovereign is not bound by the laws", a phrase initially coined by Ulpian, a Roman jurist).
There have been several reasons why Roman law was favored in the Middle Ages. It was because Roman law regulated the legal protection of property and the equality of legal subjects and their wills, and because it prescribed the possibility that the legal subjects could dispose their property through testament. Source
No code completely broke with the Roman tradition. Rather, the provisions of Roman law were fitted into a more coherent system and expressed in the national language. For this reason, knowledge of Roman law is indispensable to understand the legal systems of today. Thus, Roman law is often still a mandatory subject for law students in civil law jurisdictions.
originally posted by: BuzzyWigs
a reply to: nonspecific
You live in Southwest England and don't know this stuff?
Shame on you.
originally posted by: nonspecific
My personal opinion is that there is no Right and Wrong. It is all subjective.
You may take that shame back good sir,
Three fold.
That's because our brains are not equipped to deal with "infinite".
Since I was a little kid and asked my mom - how old is the universe? - she said - it's eternal. No beginning, no end. I said "I don't understand." She said "that's right. We can't understand it."
originally posted by: BuzzyWigs
a reply to: nonspecific
You live in Southwest England and don't know this stuff?
You sport an avatar that reeks of Medieval and Renaissance caricature? Of the Inquisition and the rise of the Church of England?
How dare you.
Shame on you.
The very definition of "poser."
originally posted by: AugustusMasonicus
originally posted by: AinElohim
yep... and Roman Law didn't influence diddly squat.
The Codex Justinianus and the Institutes of Justinian were known in Western Europe,
Again, your revisionist commentary is patently untrue:
originally posted by: BuzzyWigs
a reply to: nonspecific
You may take that shame back good sir,
Three fold.
It's "madam", (or, if you prefer, "Your Grace"), thanks very much, and
no -
The shame is all on you you. Take it back where you came from. You spoke out of ignorance, and called the correction 'arrogant' and 'hateful.' Next time do some homework "three-fold" before you unleash your fingers.
I suppose your mom isn't a cosmologist or a mathematician. I am not being rude, but as I have said there is plenty of good observable evidence that the universe is finite.
originally posted by: AinElohim
yes... stop right here!
prooceded to insult me and those that I know
whilst proffesing greater understanding.
I am happy to end this now and start again?
originally posted by: AugustusMasonicus
originally posted by: AinElohim
yes... stop right here!
Of course you want to stop there as it allows you to omit the rest of the sentence which describes the Code of Theodosius being utilized as well which predates the one by Justinian.
And are you truly that ignorant to think that both the Eastern and Western Empires did not operate on the same system founded originally in Rome?
Ancient Italy was separated, on the north, by the Alps, from Germany. It was bounded by the Adriatic Sea, by a part of the Mediterranean and on the south, by the strait of Messina. The south of Italy, was peopled by a colony from Greece. The middle of Italy contained several states or confederacies, under the denominations of Etrurians, Samnites, Latins, Volsci, Campanians and Sabines. The north was peopled by a race of Gauls. Romulus and Remus the first rulers of the Romans originated from ancient city of Latium, Italy, in the Alban Hills about 12 miles southeast of Rome which was under the dominion of the Etrurians.
You may notice the spiderman head and bannana sceptre.