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originally posted by: mbkennel
a reply to: darkstar57
It's a snarky load of BS referencing a scamming company which has invented the notion of 'hydrinos' which are somehow hydrogen atoms in lower than the ground state that can be created to make "free energy" and destroy gullible investor capital.
Lol. Why didn't I think of this and sell a sheitload of books.
originally posted by: Bedlam
originally posted by: mbkennel
a reply to: darkstar57
It's a snarky load of BS referencing a scamming company which has invented the notion of 'hydrinos' which are somehow hydrogen atoms in lower than the ground state that can be created to make "free energy" and destroy gullible investor capital.
Hey, it's got more going for it than most of the wacky theories you see cited here. And, it 'explains' the mystery of the missing hydrino. They're very cold neutrons.
I bet I could dress it up a little, toss in some drawings of vortexes, paste it over with "field" or "vibration" and the like, and I could get people to buy a book based on it. What do you think?
originally posted by: Arbitrageur
Thanks for the question. The answer is that it doesn't.
originally posted by: marsrat
So how does the velocity of a star increase while its Doppler shift remain constant?
The incorrect assumption in your question is this:
You're correct that if a galaxy did rotate like a singular angular unit like a solid, the outermost part would travel faster than the innermost part, but look at these rotation curves, which all look fairly flat to me (These are showing the velocities):
It is observed that past a certain radius galaxies will rotate as a singular angular unit (like a solid).
pages.uoregon.edu...
If they were rotating like a solid disk, those curves would slope up to the right rather steeply instead of being flat.
Some galaxies may have more dark matter than these examples, and in those cases you might see the rotation curves slope up to the right somewhat (M33 has an upward slope), but still probably not quite as much as with a solid object rotating. But where the velocity increases with radius in M33, so does the Doppler shift.
Here is an even larger sample of rotation curves and as you can see none are perfectly flat but few slope steeply up to the right like a solid object rotation and any that do would do so because the Doppler shift was similar:
www.ca-se-passe-la-haut.fr...
Google translated caption: "Spiral galaxies rotation curves (speed based on the distance from the galactic center) (Sofue & Rubin, 2001)"
I'm not ignoring it, but it's not considered a problem. This link explains why astronomers think we see the spirals in spiral galaxies (they are thought to be caused by density waves, and aren't rigid rotating structures):
originally posted by: marsrat
So you totally ignore the Windup Problem?
So if astronomers are right, long-lived stars like ours don't stay in the same spiral arm over their entire lifetime.
a spiral galaxy’s arms are visible primarily because they’re made of hot, young stars, and these very luminous stars should live for less than one rotation of the galaxy...
So, for the moment at least, the riddle seems solved. Astronomers believe a star’s residence within a spiral arm must be a temporary one, and the arms themselves are the result of a shock wave moving through the galaxy.
I don't assume the rate of time is the same everywhere, because experiments prove it's not. We can take two clocks in a lab, and move one up a meter, and see the rate of time is different one meter higher, because it's in a weaker gravitational field. The effect is more pronounced with GPS satellites which are higher by much more than one meter and also experience relativistic velocity effects on their clocks.
Why do you trust the Doppler Shift is the same everywhere when you cannot prove the rate of time is the same everywhere.
originally posted by: Arbitrageur
I don't assume the rate of time is the same everywhere, because experiments prove it's not. We can take two clocks in a lab, and move one up a meter, and see the rate of time is different one meter higher, because it's in a weaker gravitational field. The effect is more pronounced with GPS satellites which are higher by much more than one meter and also experience relativistic velocity effects on their clocks.
There are gravitational fields all over the universe and they all affect the rate of time according to the theory of relativity, which also predicts extreme changes in the passage of time near black holes. For example if you could orbit just outside the event horizon of a black hole without getting cooked, you might see a year go by on your clock while 1000 or more years pass by on Earth.
originally posted by: Arbitrageur
a reply to: ImaFungi
This is probably one of the few not completely mainstream ideas of yours that I can almost agree with.
The cosmic microwave background wasn't discovered until after Eintein's death but I often wonder what Einstein would have thought of the idea of using the cosmic microwave background as some kind of cosmic "preferred reference frame", with respect to motion. It turns out to not be very practical for us to use because of the speed we are zipping through the CMB, but conceptually I don't have a problem with that idea.
If you assume a stationary position in the CMB you would still need a place where the gravitational field is zero and there's no such place. However, if one considered a position in the immense void between galaxy superclusters, even if the gravitational field isn't exactly zero, it might be a decent approximation for the purpose you suggest. Or instead of using that as a baseline you could perhaps attempt to calculate the sum of gravitational influences at that point, make adjustments in the time calculation for those and claim that's your universal time reference.
However I'm not sure how accurate that would be given we don't understand dark matter yet.
If you're an astronaut on the ISS and you accelerate a tennis ball across the module, you can say you observed the acceleration of the tennis ball.
originally posted by: ImaFungi
But we still have ultimate frames of reference, to know for a fact that an object was accelerated is to know for a fact that that object was accelerated in every frame of reference?
originally posted by: Arbitrageur
If you're an astronaut on the ISS and you accelerate a tennis ball across the module, you can say you observed the acceleration of the tennis ball.
originally posted by: ImaFungi
But we still have ultimate frames of reference, to know for a fact that an object was accelerated is to know for a fact that that object was accelerated in every frame of reference?
But what if the astronaut squeezes a golf ball-sized sphere of water out of the water container, such that the sphere of water just floats in mid-air, with no apparent motion. Do you know for a fact that sphere of water is accelerated in every frame of reference? Think about it. The astronaut looking at it sees no acceleration at all. But other frames of reference outside the ISS would see the acceleration of the water due to the orbit of the ISS. In fact they would see the ISS and the water drop accelerating at the same rate.
originally posted by: Arbitrageur
a reply to: ImaFungi
The astronauts may know about their acceleration and thus the acceleration of the floating object that travels with them, but my point is they see no acceleration of a floating object so you can't say the "object was accelerated in every frame of reference" if it's not accelerated from their reference frame.
You're saying they are aware of what external reference frames would observe, and that's true, but that doesn't change what they observe in their reference frame, which is no acceleration of a floating object.
originally posted by: Arbitrageur
You're in good company actually in that not only are you confused, but even scientists and professors who write the textbooks have been confused on this topic and therefore since there is confusion even in the textbooks, how are non-scientists expected to sort this out?
originally posted by: glend
This explains why expansion is faster than light.
Am I stupid (be kind)
Fortunately there is a paper on this topic which, as physics papers go is fairly easy reading, but it still requires a decent understanding of relativity to fully grasp it:
Expanding Confusion: common misconceptions of cosmological horizons and the superluminal expansion of the Universe
So if you can read that paper, it will even explain how some of the textbook authors have been confused by this topic, and written textbooks that were unclear, misleading, or in some cases maybe even wrong. If they can get it wrong, you certainly shouldn't feel bad about it.
When I wrote my first reply to this I was surprised to hear you even mention this, since I thought that problem was thought to have been solved decades ago, but I wasn't sure exactly when (because it was before my time), so I looked it up. This paper dates back to 1964 and provides an explanation of how density wave theory solves the windup problem.
originally posted by: marsrat
So you totally ignore the Windup Problem?
Emphasis mine, to show that spiral galaxies aren't the only place where we see such density wave physics taking place.
Beginning in the late 1970s, Peter Goldreich, Frank Shu, and others applied density wave theory to the rings of Saturn.[5][6][7] Saturn's rings (particularly the A Ring) contain a great many spiral density waves and spiral bending waves excited by Lindblad resonances and vertical resonances (respectively) with Saturn's moons. The physics are largely the same as with galaxies, though spiral waves in Saturn's rings are much more tightly wound (extending a few hundred kilometers at most) due to the very large central mass (Saturn itself) compared to the mass of the disk.[7] The Cassini mission has revealed very small density waves excited by the ring-moons Pan and Atlas ...
Ok, just out of curiosity, what exactly is the designed for expansion on the sunlit side of the Burj Kalifa?
Thermal Effects for Steel Buildings & Structures Calculator
Determine Max. Design Temperature Change, Change of Length or Stress as Applicable,
and Max. Length either without or between Expansion Joints
originally posted by: Mary Rose
a reply to: Nochzwei
Can you please answer my question:
Introduction:
originally posted by: hgfbob
Simple fact of SCIENCE: if any of the potential energy from the accelerating mass went to destroying itself, it will lose kinetic energy which requires that the building slow in its fall.......but since it did fall at free-fall acceleration, it wasn't causing itself to collapse.
The above is talking about “potential energy,” “accelerating mass,” “kinetic energy,” "slow in its fall," “free-fall acceleration,” and “causing itself to collapse.”
Question: . . . is “free-fall acceleration” the same as or different from “causing itself to collapse”?