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originally posted by: p75213
originally posted by: dragonridr
originally posted by: p75213
originally posted by: dragonridr
originally posted by: p75213
At the bottom of the page on this site - www.allaboutcircuits.com...
there is a circuit showing a neon bulb in parallel with an inductor and the sentence "If current through an inductor is forced to change very rapidly, very high voltages will be produced."
Well it appears not only do we have high voltages but also high currents and consequently high energy levels. According to my calculations the energy released by the voltage spike is greater than the energy spent to charge the coil. Why not collect that energy in a capacitor/capacitors and use some to drive a load while the remainder is returned to the coil to repeat the process.
A capacitor stores DC current think of it as a battery. You could add an inductor to store AC but the time would not be sufficient to charge the coil. In other words you would end up with less energy then you started with.
I'm talking about dc. Not ac. In particular the circuit mentioned in my previous post. It's at the bottom of the page. You will see a coil in parallel with a bulb. Voltage Spike My proposal is to replace the bulb with a capacitor.
OK what your not getting is the voltage increase is by converting DC to AC. You create AC by creating a spark gap. Instead of constant current you get spikes aka AC.Same as a converter I bought for the car I can use it to run a TV. But it starts out with 12 volts.
What your not getting is the following quote from the aforementioned link "If current through an inductor is forced to change very rapidly, very high voltages will be produced". Forget ac. Just think about the one off situation when the collapsing magnetic field from the inductor induces a voltage spike across the same inductor. The output energy from the inductor to the capacitor is greater than the energy required to "charge" the inductor.
originally posted by: p75213
At the bottom of the page on this site - www.allaboutcircuits.com...
there is a circuit showing a neon bulb in parallel with an inductor and the sentence "If current through an inductor is forced to change very rapidly, very high voltages will be produced."
Well it appears not only do we have high voltages but also high currents and consequently high energy levels. According to my calculations the energy released by the voltage spike is greater than the energy spent to charge the coil. Why not collect that energy in a capacitor/capacitors and use some to drive a load while the remainder is returned to the coil to repeat the process.
When the switch is opened, however, it suddenly introduces an extremely high resistance into the circuit (the resistance of the air gap between the contacts). This sudden introduction of high resistance into the circuit causes the circuit current to decrease almost instantly.
originally posted by: moebius
originally posted by: p75213
At the bottom of the page on this site - www.allaboutcircuits.com...
there is a circuit showing a neon bulb in parallel with an inductor and the sentence "If current through an inductor is forced to change very rapidly, very high voltages will be produced."
Well it appears not only do we have high voltages but also high currents and consequently high energy levels. According to my calculations the energy released by the voltage spike is greater than the energy spent to charge the coil. Why not collect that energy in a capacitor/capacitors and use some to drive a load while the remainder is returned to the coil to repeat the process.
Your calculations are wrong.
The very high voltage is produced by increasing the resistance of the circuit. This of course changes the time constant of the circuit.
When the switch is opened, however, it suddenly introduces an extremely high resistance into the circuit (the resistance of the air gap between the contacts). This sudden introduction of high resistance into the circuit causes the circuit current to decrease almost instantly.
The energy released is equal to the energy stored.
If you're trying to say we don't have a quantum theory of gravity, that's true but that's an odd way to say it and perhaps not entirely accurate. It's an unsolved problem in physics:
originally posted by: Truthbeknowntoall1
Gravity, as we understand in general, breaks down between atomic and subatomic levels.
Quantum gravity: Can quantum mechanics and general relativity be realized as a fully consistent theory (perhaps as a quantum field theory)? Is spacetime fundamentally continuous or discrete? Would a consistent theory involve a force mediated by a hypothetical graviton, or be a product of a discrete structure of spacetime itself (as in loop quantum gravity)? Are there deviations from the predictions of general relativity at very small or very large scales or in other extreme circumstances that flow from a quantum gravity theory?
When Newton gave us his law of gravitation he said he didn't know what caused it, and we still don't. But we do understand how it behaves even better than Newton did and that's all we need to know to answer the question about why gravitational interaction isn't apparent at an atomic level, it's because gravity is so weak.
That begs the question, what is gravity? If you think you know what it is, and that it's "force" is immutable, how do subatomic particles float outside the nucleus of EVERY atom? Perhaps magnetics and vibration are at play?
Hierarchy problem: Why is gravity such a weak force? It becomes strong for particles only at the Planck scale, around 10^19 GeV, much above the electroweak scale (100 GeV, the energy scale dominating physics at low energies). Why are these scales so different from each other?
I think you got excited about the free energy you thought you found from having output greater than input.
originally posted by: p75213
How the hell did I not read that.
originally posted by: KrzYma
Photons is an idea not a real thing.
Time is an idea and not a physical something.
Time does not exist as physical thing so does something like spacetime not !
It sounds like a very uneducated description of field theory with some dictionary abuse thrown in, but conceptually it's along the same lines as Dirac's attempt to use "aether" in relation to "particles" instead of Newton's idea of the luminiferous aether which gave a medium for the light waves to "wave" in. As previously noted, the scientific community rejected such usage of the word "aether", but you and Dirac shouldn't feel too badly, they also rejected Einstein's usage of "aether" related to general relativity. Apparently they like more specific meanings and definitions for terms, and don't like 10 different people trying to give 10 different meanings to the same word. Seems like a logical approach.
originally posted by: KrzYma
now... if you understand what I'm saying you will understand why the so called Aether was not detected.
Your idea doesn't explain how light propagates in a vacuum.
Radiation waves are the movements in density of those charged particles ( Magnetic Field with speed C ), not the movement of they point of origin ( instantaneous ) Electric Field.
I fail to see what you hope to accomplish by making these statements. They mean absolutely nothing until you define "real thing" and "physical something" and you can get into really silly philosophical debates about that without ever making any progress or accomplishing anything. They are both experimentally verifiable so whatever they are they show up again and again in measurable, repeatable experiments.
And again...
Photons is an idea not a real thing.
Time is an idea and not a physical something.
This formula comes from the mainstream model that you say is wrong? Yet you still claim your model is right but you can't predict these experimental results with it? Do you see the problem with your lack of logic here?
Arbitrageur !!
T=T0/sqrt(1-(2GM/Rc^2)) is a formula that works, no doubt about that formula...
The lack of defined terminology essentially makes this more useless babbling. The NIST experiments with clocks and the resulting differences in clock rates are well-defined. When you elevate one clock yes you have affected the rate of that clock. The researchers didn't claim they personally altered the passage of time, just that they put the clocks at different altitudes where the passage of time is naturally different due to the differing distance from the center of the Earth.
But T is not something you can take and do something to it or do something with it.
It is just something you can calculate or count ( is what the clocks do )
Time does not exist as physical thing so does something like spacetime not !
That is absolutely NOT how "photon" was chosen. What came out of the light bulb was light and the man who coined the term photon said photons are NOT light:
originally posted by: DanielKoenig
When you go in a dark room and flip on a switch and the room is no longer dark, it was thought that the stuff coming from the bulb should have a name, 'photon' was chosen.
So it was being called things like a "quantum of light" and if you had a number of those they didn't want that to be confused with "quantum number" which was something else, so they gave it a different name, photon, which stuck.
It would seem inappropriate to speak of one of these hypothetical entities as a particle of light, a corpuscle of light, a light quantum, or a light quant, if we are to assume that it spends only a minute fraction of its existence as a carrier of radiant energy, while the rest of the time it remains as an important structural element within the atom. It would also cause confusion to call it merely a quantum, for later it will be necessary to distinguish between the number of these entities present in an atom and the so-called quantum number. I therefore take the liberty of proposing for this hypothetical new atom, which is not light but plays an essential part in every process of radiation, the name photon.
originally posted by: Truthbeknowntoall1
Free floating subatomic particles have been found to "float" outside the nucleus. When a subatomic particle is outside the nucleus, is it then able to utilize and expand that particle on the atomic level? If so, would that allow whatever is encompassed by that subatomic particle to then become subatomic?
originally posted by: Arbitrageur
That is absolutely NOT how "photon" was chosen. What came out of the light bulb was light and the man who coined the term photon said photons are NOT light:
"It would seem inappropriate to speak of one of these hypothetical entities as a particle of light, a corpuscle of light, a light quantum, or a light quant, if we are to assume that it spends only a minute fraction of its existence as a carrier of radiant energy, while the rest of the time it remains as an important structural element within the atom..."
"It would also cause confusion to call it merely a quantum for later it will be necessary to distinguish between the number of these entities present in an atom and the so-called quantum number. I therefore take the liberty of proposing for this hypothetical new atom, which is not light but plays an essential part in every process of radiation, the name photon." So it was being called things like a "quantum of light" and if you had a number of those they didn't want that to be confused with "quantum number" which was something else, so they gave it a different name, photon, which stuck.
It depends on the context of your question. If you're talking about modern times the photons need to have a rather high minimum energy for pair production (at least 1.022 MeV for the creation of a pair of charged particles) to occur and photons now have a lot less average energy than in the primordial universe so it doesn't happen as often. Now it's more common for moving charged particles to create EM radiation.
originally posted by: BELIEVERpriest
Here's another question that may or may not have a clear answer. If not, then I'm interested in an educated opinion.
What came first? Did moving charged particles create the EM spectrum, or did the EM spectrum create charged particles?
originally posted by: DanielKoenig
I was not attempting to give an accurate historical depiction of the process of discovery and labeling...
Chosen in past tense implies historical origin so if that wasn't your intent then choose your words more carefully.
it was thought that the stuff coming from the bulb should have a name, 'photon' was chosen.
Terminology evolves as knowledge grows. Not every word in modern science means what it did when the word was coined which applies to not only photons but many other things. Sometimes meaning changes a little and sometimes a lot, and sometimes coined terms remain misnomers. I made a thread about one of the worst examples of this:
Yeah, this is semantic nonsense. When you turn on a light, something comes out of the bulb. It is called light, it is called em radiation, it is not called photons?
If you mean the quote coining the term "photon", that was from Gilbert Lewis.
originally posted by: DanielKoenig
This means, the waves quanta? As you were suggesting, there is a difference between the wave, and its quanta?
Search "wave-particle duality". We don't have all the answers.
A wave is composed of quanta? ( and a wave is as a whole, quantized itself, as 1 quanta of wave) 1 EM wave may be composed of thousands or millions of quanta/photon?
An EM wave is not a photon, EM waves are composed of photons?
But photons themselves are also waves? But a photon is not an EM wave (a photon is not EM radiation), but a photon is a wave? (and a particle, a quanta, quantized, wave)
Arbitrageur, mbkennel and I had quite a discussion that lasted for several pages on quantum philosophy starting back around page 287 of this thread. I retain my belief that quantum mechanics can be easily understood by proposing that any entity collapses to a size dx = hbar/2dp when it receives a momentum change of dp during an interaction, and that it collapses to the entire region where no collapse is required if a portion of it would be required to collapse but it does not collapse anywhere within the required portion. This isn't quite the same as Copenhagen, although it is close, especially with Heisenberg's (I think it was he) proposal that "the observer" can actually be an apparatus. My interpretation is that no observer or apparatus is needed, just an interaction or requirement of an interaction in a portion of the wave function. The problem with my proposal is only that relativity does not allow it because of the relativity of simultaneity not allowing for instantaneous collapse. (If the collapse is not instantaneous it could occur at two places.) But my interpretation is allowed by the absolute theories. And then everything can make sense once again in physics.