It looks like you're using an Ad Blocker.
Please white-list or disable AboveTopSecret.com in your ad-blocking tool.
Thank you.
Some features of ATS will be disabled while you continue to use an ad-blocker.
(visit the link for the full news article)
Oklahoma City, Oklahoma (CNN) -- Oklahoma voters are considering an unusual question that will appear on their ballots this Tuesday: whether Islamic law can be used in considering cases in state court.
The question is the doing of State Rep. Rex Duncan. The Republican is the main author of State Question 755, also known as the "Save our State" constitutional amendment, one of 11 questions on the state ballot.
The question might seem a befuddling one for a ballot in the heartland, but it stems from a New Jersey legal case in which a Muslim woman went to a family court asking for a restr
Originally posted by Intelearthling
I am surprised that this has got to go to a vote. The Constitution clearly states that no law shall be passed to favor one religion over another.
Beyond this, the article states that a judge rules in favor of a Muslim man raping his wife because it was within his Islamic beliefs. It was later overturned but for a judge to say that it's OK for a woman to be raped, here in the United States, because of a persons belief is beyond my belief.
What I'm trying to say that this shouldn't have to go to a public referendum because the law is already written in the Constitution.
Originally posted by Intelearthling
reply to post by Montana
"Thou shalt not kill" and Thou shalt not steal" are Judaic law and observed by Christians through the Ten Commandments.
Should we strike down existing laws concerning these two offenses to conform with the Constitution?
This Islamic ruling will allow Muslim men to rape their wives without any consequences. If this law passes, I'll bet they'll be a lot of converts by low-life Americans that don't even have a religion.
Originally posted by EvillerBob
In relation to the question being asked, it really sounds like a pre-emptive strike to prevent sharia law having a greater impact on the courts, so I suspect the originator wants it to voted down.
In relation to the rape case, although I have not read the case mentioned, it may not be as straightforward as a court accepting sharia law. In most jurisdictions, a defence against rape is to establish that the defendant genuinely believed that the victim gave their consent. The defendant may have argued that, as he lived his life according to sharia law, he genuinely believed that the wife is considered to always and irrevocably give her consent to her husband. So, did the court "accept sharia law", or did the court "accept sharia law as evidence of why the defendant had a genuine belief"?
I use the words "genuine belief" here but the law in question probably uses different language.
Originally posted by Xcathdra
No means just that, No.
Recently a leading Islamic Cleric in England came out stating that as the wife, its her responsibility to essentially give it up whenever he wants it. He went so far to say that rape is allowable in these cases, which in my opinion is BS.