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Originally posted by Tony_Poremba
Also another concept is fairly simple. In all deductable logic every space must contain a space. And that space must conatain a space. For example IF our universe is finite and is contained.. what conatains it? ANd Would whatever conatained our universe also contain a space?
This simple and toally unfallible logic dictates that Space is indeed infinite.
Originally posted by Tony_Poremba
...If In fact Space in Like an apple.... What encomapsses space? More SPace? More of something... All SPace is contained in Space... And the space copntaining that space must also be encompassed in space
Originally posted by Tony_PorembaAlso the argurment that is everything exists on an infinite plane then nothing could traverse it. That just calls in two different approaches. The first being the theory of Prediction or ANy event occurring simultaniously or all future events have already came to pass. That theory in of itself is baseless. It cannot keep a solid base if it were bolted down . It fails when brought through Scientific Method and Deductible logic... which in case u do not know Deduces Circumstance and Evidence to prove, to the closest feasible and logical conclusion.
The other is that the future does not exist but is occurring at an allencompassing rate. That cause and effect.. though reliant on eachother , never cease as long as things change. And as is , from infinity til now everything has been changing ...
Originally posted by Tony_Poremba
A do9t on a infinte line would not make an infiinite dot also... It would make a dot upon an infinte line. Otherwise the dot and the line would not be distinguishable.
Originally posted by Tony_Poremba
Lets say taht our universe is finite.... and there is a boundary... what liese behind that boundary? Wouldn't that be called something... even if it is space? Would that not also be contained if theree is another boundary?
posted by Enkidu
posted by Tony_Poremba: “. . everything is based upon cause and effect . . there cannot be an cause that bears no effect without a previous cause setting it in motion . . ad infinitum. [Edited by Don W]
That particular assumption is based on the completely unproven notion of linear, single-direction time. When you go macro-cosmic or micro-cosmic, the standard notions of linear time don't necessarily apply. That's old, mechanical Newtonian thinking. It's quite possible for there to be an effect and then a cause way on down the line somewhere, or no cause at all. Energy moving in various forms through a variety of potentialities. Our brains have a hard time understanding it, though. Once you give up the assumption of linear time, the answers start to come a lot easier. [Edited by Don W]
Also another concept is fairly simple. In all deductable logic every space must contain a space. And that space must conatain a space. For example IF our universe is finite and is contained.. what conatains it? ANd Would whatever conatained our universe also contain a space?
Originally posted by Tony_Poremba
No i am just not writing anything that is goign to be graded so I just type.
posted by ioogy: “It's interesting to see that almost everyone who tries to attack and explain ideas such as infinitum, tries to do so with an intellect that simply isn't made to understand anything it can't deduce, break down, categorize, and in all reality, make finite. [Edited by Don W]
The very notion of understanding infinitum is in itself a contradiction, in that labeling something in effect makes it finite. We as individual beings, as individual intellects prove that this "universe" in which we "live" is in fact finite, otherwise there would be no separation of anything. Proving something to exist beyond your ability to comprehend is not possible, therefore proving something exists beyond the "universe" (which is defined as "the totality of all things that exist") is in fact impossible.
Originally posted by Tony_Poremba
Actually Imaginaryreality ... most scientist in fact believe in the infinite divisabilty of matter and energy. With regards to Eastern thought there are arguments against and for what is called the partless particle. I don't know too much on it but it basically states that no particle can be without have parts to cause its manifestaition. LIke an atome of a nucleus and it consiting of sub atomic and smaller particles as nuetrinos. As everything that is caused must have another reliant factor to manifest there can be no" single part" as it must be caused and created from other parts in order to project a reaction as all things are not static and are subject to change.
[edit on 3-5-2006 by Tony_Poremba]