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1783 The Revolutionary War was fought and concluded when Cornwallis surrendered to Washington at Yorktown. As Americans we have been taught that we defeated the king and won our freedom. The Treaty of 1783, which totally contradicts our having won the Revolutionary War. This Treaty was signed in 1783, the war was over in 1781. If the United States defeated England, how is the king granting rights to America, when we were now his equal in status? We supposedly defeated him in the Revolutionary War! So why would these supposed patriot Americans sign such a Treaty, when they knew that this would void any sovereignty gained by the Declaration of Independence and the Revolutionary War?
His Brittanic Majesty acknowledges the said United States, viz., New Hampshire, Massachusetts Bay, Rhode Island and Providence Plantations, Connecticut, New York, New Jersey, Pennsylvania, Maryland, Virginia, North Carolina, South Carolina and Georgia, to be free sovereign and independent states, that he treats with them as such, and for himself, his heirs, and successors, relinquishes all claims to the government, propriety, and territorial rights of the same and every part thereof.
It having pleased the Divine Providence to dispose the hearts of the most serene and most potent Prince George the Third... and of the United States of America, to forget all past misunderstandings and differences ... and having for this desirable end already laid the foundation of peace and reconciliation by the Provisional Articles signed at Paris on the 30th of November 1782, by the commissioners empowered on each part... but which treaty was not to be concluded until terms of peace should be agreed upon between Great Britain and France and his Britannic Majesty should be ready to conclude such treaty accordingly; and the treaty between Great Britain and France having since been concluded, his Britannic Majesty and the United States of America ... have constituted and appointed... yada yada etc etc
Article 8: The navigation of the river Mississippi, from its source to the ocean, shall forever remain free and open to the subjects of Great Britain and the citizens of the United States.
Originally posted by Trinityman
The website you link to is a foolish one, full of inaccuracies and half-baked theories. The answer to your specific question will be found in Article 1 of the aforementioned Treaty of Paris (1783) (emphasis is mine):
His Brittanic Majesty acknowledges the said United States, viz., New Hampshire, Massachusetts Bay, Rhode Island and Providence Plantations, Connecticut, New York, New Jersey, Pennsylvania, Maryland, Virginia, North Carolina, South Carolina and Georgia, to be free sovereign and independent states, that he treats with them as such, and for himself, his heirs, and successors, relinquishes all claims to the government, propriety, and territorial rights of the same and every part thereof.
That's fairly unambiguous, don't you think?
In June of 1606, King James I granted a charter to a group of London entrepreneurs, the Virginia Company
Originally posted by junglejake
Quite simply, I would look beyond the treaty to the actual politics. We very obviously today aren't a British colony. Even in 1812, during the only war the US has ever lost, the causes for the British invasion weren't related to this treaty. Both sides seem to have seen it as a declaration of American soverignty.
Originally posted by Hajduk
I would be really curious to know how many American Presidents, and in general, powerful/influencial people, can trace there family histories back to British nobility.
Originally posted by Hajduk
I would be really curious to know how many American Presidents, and in general, powerful/influencial people, can trace there family histories back to British nobility.
Originally posted by twitchy
Interesting post OpenSecret. that was the level of discussion I was looking for here.
hajduk
can trace there family histories back to British nobility.
Originally posted by junglejake
Quite simply, I would look beyond the treaty to the actual politics. We very obviously today aren't a British colony. Even in 1812, during the only war the US has ever lost, the causes for the British invasion weren't related to this treaty. Both sides seem to have seen it as a declaration of American soverignty.
At the time the treaty was signed, the Brits had control over much of the world. You could be a soverign nation, but you still had to answer to the king of England and his edicts because, like the US is now, if you didn't play by their rules, they'd take the ball and go home. Then, the world's economy pretty much revolved around the British empire and the East India Company, which was controlled by the Brits. Today, the world's economy revolves around the US. We make mandates to soverign nations and they obey them or they have sanctions placed on them.
Originally posted by longbow
Just one remark - the 1812-1814 war was not lost, it was a stalemate.
Originally posted by syrinx high priest
couldn't you argure the romans still own britain, so the US is a roman state ?
Originally posted by deltaboy
so case closed thanks to EastCoastKid who solved the mystery, the US of A aint a Brit colony and hasnt been since 1781. anibody who still dreams of America being a Brit colony talk to me.