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Originally posted by adjensen
Had it been an accurate translation, the Church would not have been concerned. Vernacular versions had been appearing for centuries. But what came from the hands of the Albigensians was an adulterated Bible. The bishops at Toulouse forbade the reading of it because it was inaccurate. In this they were caring for their flocks, just as a Protestant minister of today might tell his flock not to read the Jehovah’s Witnesses’ New World Translation. (Source)
Originally posted by defcon5
reply to post by adjensen
Typical Catholic apologist tripe.
The apocrypha was removed from all protestant bibles, not just Luther’s.
As far as “adding” or “removing” a word here or there, I find that difficult to believe considering that the Germans had NO UNIFORM WRITTEN LANGUAGE at the time Luther wrote his bible.
Now what I HAVE seen in person, is Catholic Apologists attempt to twist all sorts of recorded history, to make their actions seem acceptable over the years, every time they get caught with their pants around their ankles. I have seen them quote their own Catholic writings in dispute of historical evidence from neutral third parties.
The Catholic Church, who were stretching the scripture by miles to suit their own agenda, was not worried about a “heretical” text that accidentally replaced a “the” with an “as”.
Originally posted by adjensen
Luther removed them from his Bible because they were used, in part, to support Catholic theology that he disagreed with, and his overt rationale was that they were written in Greek, not Hebrew, so were not a part of the Hebrew Bible.
Originally posted by adjensen I'm a trained historian who has extensively studied church history, both good and bad, both Catholic and Protestant.
Originally posted by adjensenYou seriously think that adding the word "alone" to Romans 3:28 has no theological impact? And that his reason for doing so, that "Paul intended that word there", is valid?
Luther defended his translation by maintaining that the adverb "alone" was required both by idiomatic German and the apostle Paul's intended meaning.
Originally posted by adjensenI came into this thread to correct your egregiously incorrect statement that the Roman Catholic Church imposed the death penalty on people who dared to own a Bible.
Originally posted by adjensen
I am guessing that you have no idea who the Albigensians were and what they taught? Go read up on Catharism and decide whether it was right or wrong for the church to protect the Bible from their influence.
I do not approve of the way that the church wiped them out, but their translation wasn't a matter of simple word replacement.
And it was given unto him to make war with the saints, and to overcome them: -Revelation 13
Originally posted by defcon5
Originally posted by adjensen
Luther removed them from his Bible because they were used, in part, to support Catholic theology that he disagreed with, and his overt rationale was that they were written in Greek, not Hebrew, so were not a part of the Hebrew Bible.
Nonsense,
If Luther had “removed them” for the reasons you're stating, then why would he have recommended the Apocrypha as “books that are not regarded as equal to the Holy Scripture, and yet are profitable and good to read.”
Since you're such the chruch history expert you might want to know that Luther didn't "remove" the Apocrypha, he put them in their own section between the Old and New testaments. Hence they fact they are called “inter-testamental” books.
Originally posted by adjensenYou seriously think that adding the word "alone" to Romans 3:28 has no theological impact? And that his reason for doing so, that "Paul intended that word there", is valid?
1) The Roman Catholic Church didn't exactly supply Luther with top of the line original books to work from, considering that they were sort of busy trying to hunt him down and put him to death to stop him from publishing anything else.
Originally posted by adjensenI came into this thread to correct your egregiously incorrect statement that the Roman Catholic Church imposed the death penalty on people who dared to own a Bible.
You mean my egregiously correct statement which I showed you from their own Councils writings?
Originally posted by adjensen
I am guessing that you have no idea who the Albigensians were and what they taught? Go read up on Catharism and decide whether it was right or wrong for the church to protect the Bible from their influence.
I do not approve of the way that the church wiped them out, but their translation wasn't a matter of simple word replacement.
...And they were not the only people they “converted” to death through the inquisitions because of doctrinal differences.
Originally posted by adjensen
The Council said that a specific translation was unacceptable. It said nothing of church approved translations.
"Canon 14. We prohibit also that the laity should not be permitted to have the books of the Old or New Testament; we most strictly forbid their having any translation of these books."
- The Church Council of Toulouse 1229 AD
Originally posted by adjensen
Um... because by taking them out of scripture, he was denying their authority, which was his goal.
Originally posted by adjensen
Mere Christianity by C.S. Lewis is "profitable and good to read", but is not scripture, eh?
Originally posted by adjensen
I thought you said that they were "removed from all Protestant Bibles, not just Luther's"
Originally posted by adjensen
Come on. His adding that word is crucial to Sola Fide. You're claiming that he had a flawed version of the Vulgate to translate from, one that had a word in it that no other version of the Vulgate (or the Greek versions of Romans) has in it?
Originally posted by adjensen
You appear to be in favour of that translation, meaning that you're an Arian and you reject the Nicene Creed.
Originally posted by adjensen
I don't imagine that is really the case, that you'd reject Christianity simply to foment your hatred of the Roman Catholic Church, so maybe you want to rethink that position?
No, the issue was with the translation, not the language -- there were many translations into other languages (the first English translation, for example, was the Wycliffe Bible from the 1300s, though there were earlier fragmentary translations that dated back to the Eighth Century.
Yeah, source.... Catholic's dot com...
Originally posted by WashMoreFeet
Originally posted by Snsoc
reply to post by WashMoreFeet
"He shall honor a GOD of fortresses." Not a goddess.
Nice try.
Excuse me, I have to go ask Mary to pray for you.
I'm sorry, but are you actually being serious?
So I guess God was unwittingly creating a loophole for goddess worship when He said, "You shall have no other gods before me."
I'm thinking not.edit on 7/1/2013 by WashMoreFeet because: (no reason given)
Originally posted by defcon5
Originally posted by adjensen
The Council said that a specific translation was unacceptable. It said nothing of church approved translations.
Can you explain the meaning of the words “any translation”, apparently they mean something different to you than they do to everyone else in the rest of the world.
"Canon 14. We prohibit also that the laity should not be permitted to have the books of the Old or New Testament; we most strictly forbid their having any translation of these books."
- The Church Council of Toulouse 1229 AD
To the same bishop and chapter of Metz we have given orders to inquire carefully about the truth, who was the author of that translation, what was the intention of the translator, what is the faith of those using it, what is the cause of teaching it, if those using it venerate the apostolic See and honour the Catholic Church (Source)
Originally posted by adjensen
Um... because by taking them out of scripture, he was denying their authority, which was his goal.
he didn't take them out of scripture, he just put them in the middle of the book between testaments. Again, to the rest of the world, to “take something out” means to remove it, not move it.
And hey...I'm not the one claiming to be the trained bible history expert that you are.
You are making an awfully big fuss out of one word in hundreds of thousands...
The Arian heresy had been handled a thousand years earlier by the Council of Nicaea...
So you're telling me that the Church had to confiscate all Bibles, and kill hundreds of thousands of people just because they were worried that some might think that Christ was a creation of God rather than God himself?
Originally posted by NOTurTypical
reply to post by adjensen
No, the issue was with the translation, not the language -- there were many translations into other languages (the first English translation, for example, was the Wycliffe Bible from the 1300s, though there were earlier fragmentary translations that dated back to the Eighth Century.
I realize that. But the quote that was posted earlier was from 1219 I believe. A century earlier. The RCC did not want the layperson with a Bible for quite some time in it's history. And people printed and distributed them to Christians desperate for the Word of God under the penalty of death.
It said in the Bible that the Bereans were "noble" in their endeavours to search the scriptures diligently to confirm what they were being taught aligned with God's Word.