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Originally posted by SPECULUM
The UN has no authority within the US borders nor does any mandate on any civilian regardless of any treaty the US government enters into with the UN.
Our Constitution prohibits it without the unanimous consent of the PEOPLE
Its Treason
Originally posted by jibeho
There is still the matter of this little thing called the Vienna Convention (signed by the US) which indicates that when we sign a treaty, until it is either rejected by the Senate or renounced by a president, it remains in force. ( to put it briefly) Say, Harry Reid refuses to send this to the floor for a vote?
There is still the matter of this little thing called the Vienna Convention (signed by the US) which indicates that when we sign a treaty, until it is either rejected by the Senate or renounced by a president, it remains in force. ( to put it briefly) Say, Harry Reid refuses to send this to the floor for a vote?
Article 85 of the Convention provides that it enters into force after the ratification by 35 states (international organizations may ratify, but their ratification does not count towards the number required for entry into force). On 26 September 2012, the UN Treaty Database listed 42 parties to the Convention, but only 30 states. As a result the Convention is not yet in force.
Article 18 Obligation not to defeat the object and purpose of a treaty prior to its entry into force
A State is obliged to refrain from acts which would defeat the object and purpose of a treaty when:
(a) it has signed the treaty or has exchanged instruments constituting the treaty subject to ratification, acceptance or approval, until it shall have made its intention clear not to become a party to the treaty; or
(b) it has expressed its consent to be bound by the treaty, pending the entry into force of the treaty and provided that such entry into force is not unduly delaye
Is the United States a party to the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties?
No. The United States signed the treaty on April 24, 1970. The U.S. Senate has not given its advice and consent to the treaty. The United States considers many of the provisions of the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties to constitute customary international law on the law of treaties.
There are multiple factors at play here and you are only focusing on one. In regards to the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties as stated in Article 18. We signed it in 1970 and it's complicated regarding signing vs. ratification and the loopholes within. I have to dig more. Its complicated on purpose.
First:
•Article 11 says that States may bind themselves to a treaty by signing it, exchanging texts of it, ratifying it, or however else they agree.
•Article 12 says that a signature alone binds a State if the treaty says that it does.
•Article 14, on the other hand, says that ratification binds the State if the head of State signed it subject to having another body of government ratify it.
Most importantly. .Article 18 says that States must not do things to stop a treaty from taking force or effect while they wait for the right body of government to ratify it.
It may require gun registration ( Arms Trade Treaty @wikipedia ).
Since most of Europe already has a personal ID card implemented there is less of a issue there (and to a point looking to international arms trade the treaty seems a good thing but fails to note that most nations constantly violate arms embargoes, economic embargoes etc when it suits them.
Yes, it would have to be ratified by Senate. I have recognized that point many times. However, in order to be ratified, Harry Reid the majority leader, would have to put it on the floor for a vote. Until that vote is called (could take years) the treaty is in effect unless rejected by POTUS and that will not happen.
Originally posted by rnaa
This is a treaty about INTERNATIONAL GUN TRADE not personal gun ownership.
It is designed to curb gun running, not void the 2nd amendment.
What is this place coming to?
The motto here is "DENY IGNORANCE" not "FEIGN OUTRAGE".
This Article has argued that the Constitution establishes a straight- forward rule regarding the judicial enforcement of treaties. By declaring treaties to have the force of law, the Supremacy Clause makes them enforceable in the courts in the same circumstances as statutory and constitutional provisions of like content.
The Founders under- stood that treaties were contracts between nations that, on the interna- tional plane, depended on interest and honor for their efficacy. In or- der to avoid international friction that might lead to war and to capture the benefits of a reputation for treaty compliance, they made treaties enforceable in our courts as a matter of domestic constitutional law. The single exception to the requirement of equivalent treatment concerns treaties that are non-self-executing in the sense contemplated by Foster v. Neilson. The Court’s subsequent decision in United States v. Percheman is best read to have recognized a presumption that treaties are self-executing in this sense, rebuttable by a clear statement in the treaty that the obligations imposed by the treaty are subject to legislative implementation. The recent decision in Medellín v. Texas is best understood as an example of an entirely different kind of non-self-execution. With respect to bilateral treaties, the Percheman clear statement rule leaves matters largely within the control of the U.S. treatymakers
The treaty does NOT 'fail to note' that. That is the EXPLICIT justification for the treaty - to prevent such illicit weapons trade and provide a framework for tracking violations.
Originally posted by jibeho
Looks like we have a development
Senate votes 53-46 to stop US from joining UN Arms Trade Treaty..
www.abovetopsecret.com...
Let's see where this goes from here... Should be interesting as system is about to get stretched to its limit...
This Article has argued that the Constitution establishes a straight- forward rule regarding the judicial enforcement of treaties. By declaring treaties to have the force of law, the Supremacy Clause makes them enforceable in the courts in the same circumstances as statutory and constitutional provisions of like content.
Not only was it defeated in the Senate:
thehill.com...
Patrick Leahy (D-VT) a brazenly proud socialist got an amendment APPROVED so no treaties will trump the constitution. Holy crap! Is this still planet earth? Read the link.
The Bricker Amendment is the collective name of a series of proposed amendments to the United States Constitution considered by the United States Senate in the 1950s. These amendments would have placed restrictions on the scope and ratification of treaties and executive agreements entered into by the United States and are named for their sponsor, Senator John W. Bricker of Ohio, a conservative Republican.
...
Bricker's proposal attracted broad bipartisan support and was a focal point of intra-party conflict between the administration of president Dwight D. Eisenhower and the Old Right faction of conservative Republican senators. Despite the initial support, the Bricker Amendment was blocked through the intervention of President Eisenhower and failed in the Senate by a single vote in 1954. Three years later the Supreme Court of the United States explicitly ruled in Reid v. Covert that the Bill of Rights cannot be abrogated by agreements with foreign powers. Nevertheless, Senator Bricker's ideas still have supporters, and new versions of his amendment have been reintroduced in Congress periodically.
Originally posted by Logarock
In certain parts of the US building inspectors on new builds are already inforcing united nation/international building codes. And it goes small to down to private dwellings, homes.edit on 24-3-2013 by Logarock because: n