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Originally posted by GBP/JPY
reply to post by adjensen
universal salvation is Scriptural....one has read the whole book......1TIM 4:10
That is why we labor and strive, because we have put our hope in the living God, who is the Savior of all people, and especially of those who believe. (1 Timothy 4:10 NIV)
Originally posted by adjensen
Originally posted by GBP/JPY
reply to post by adjensen
universal salvation is Scriptural....one has read the whole book......1TIM 4:10
Really? You don't see the contradiction in that passage? It's pretty clearly against universal salvation.
That is why we labor and strive, because we have put our hope in the living God, who is the Savior of all people, and especially of those who believe. (1 Timothy 4:10 NIV)
The word "especially" is the give away -- either Christ saves everyone, whether they believe or not, or he saves those who believe, and the distinction that "especially" denotes makes it impossible to say that the first conclusion is correct.
He is, indeed, the potential Savior of all people. But he doesn't save everyone, or the sentence "and especially of those who believe" would not be there.
Originally posted by TarzanBeta
reply to post by adjensen
Yeah there is not universal salvation.
Unfortunately, the people who believe that there is universal salvation are generally the people that are against God and His Judgement. That's not a good side of the fence to be on.
John 3 35 The Father loveth the Son, and hath given all things into his hand.
Originally posted by mplsfitter539
Do we read from the same bible because mine says Christ died for the sins of the whole world. Think about the universal view of
John 3 35 The Father loveth the Son, and hath given all things into his hand.
This verse says All things. All means all.
Originally posted by adjensen
Originally posted by mplsfitter539
Do we read from the same bible because mine says Christ died for the sins of the whole world. Think about the universal view of
John 3 35 The Father loveth the Son, and hath given all things into his hand.
This verse says All things. All means all.
The problem is that passages like that can be read either way -- one can make a case for universal salvation, or for non-universal salvation (Calvin, for example, said that Christ saving all was "Christ saving all that he meant to", which leads into predestination.) However, there are numerous passages that cannot be reconciled with universal salvation, such as John 3:18 ("Whoever believes in him is not condemned, but whoever does not believe stands condemned already because they have not believed in the name of God’s one and only Son"), so one is left with either an unorthodox interpretation, which is usually a giant stretch, or that bit just needs to be ignored.
For, as I have often told you before and now tell you again even with tears, many live as enemies of the cross of Christ. Their destiny is destruction
Originally posted by adjensen
reply to post by mplsfitter539
Well, I'm not a scholar of ancient languages, though there are a couple of them around here someplace. However, I don't think that it is reasonable to assume that such a significant conclusion could only be reached by translating into and out of ancient languages. And, as I said, there are many other places, both in the Hebrew Bible and New Testament, that speak to non-universal salvation, such as Philippians 3:18-19:
For, as I have often told you before and now tell you again even with tears, many live as enemies of the cross of Christ. Their destiny is destruction
"Destruction" doesn't sound like "correction".
. . . which takes place after the Messiah sets up His kingdom at the second coming . . .