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Originally posted by ignant
sorry to 'butt' in,
but why is it that 1 in 4 homosexuals are HIV+
but nowhere near 1 in 4 heteros are HIV+?
Originally posted by lordtyp0
It is gotten by HIV testing. People get tested either when they think they were exposed or doing things that they would feel better if they were tested.
Originally posted by Bleak
I'm willing to remain open-minded to people's arguments, but understand that actually citing Kinsey is crossing the line, pure and simple.
Originally posted by lordtyp0
It is gotten by HIV testing. People get tested either when they think they were exposed or doing things that they would feel better if they were tested.
- Hold on, what?
On the second.. sorry what didnt make sense? People don't get HIV tested unless they think they have been exposed in some manner, so it makes sense that a percentage of people tested-come out as positive..
Originally posted by Bleak
reply to post by lordtyp0
The problem with Kinsey (from what little I know about him) is that his deductions were simply not plausible. Really, he just strikes me as a pervert who went out of his way to attempt to promote and normalize his own "alternative" interests.
On the second.. sorry what didnt make sense? People don't get HIV tested unless they think they have been exposed in some manner, so it makes sense that a percentage of people tested-come out as positive..
It's just that it kind of sounded like you were saying that AIDS is actually caused by HIV testing. And considering the rather outlandish conspiracy theories on the subject, I honestly wouldn't be too surprised if somebody actually believed that. But perhaps I just misinterpreted you...?
Originally posted by Bleak
reply to post by lordtyp0
I just did some research on Kinsey and to be honest, I kind of wish I hadn't.