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I don’t agree with this assessment. Everyone makes appeals to a particular piece of legislation or precedent to support their theory, but just because you can’t understand completely the legal complexities, or determine if they are right, doesn’t mean their arguments have merit.
Originally posted by Aim64C
The problem is we have far too many statutes with far too little principle in the legal system. ... You will always find some law that gives someone the authority to do something while finding another law that would seem to indicate that same act to be a no-no.
I’m all for people keeping a check on executive power, but it’s disingenuous, or at least historically false, to make it seem like this is unprecedented or particular to this President.
The problem is that we had a President issue an order to attack another sovereign nation without consulting Congress. ... and did not consult Congress for permission to act in Libya (but did so with the U.N.). This, is quite honestly, an alarming act of disregard for U.S. policy and authority.
The instances vary greatly in size of operation, legal authorization, and significance. ... Some actions were of short duration and some lasted a number of years. In some instances a military officer acted without authorization; some actions were conducted solely under the President's powers as Chief Executive or Commander in Chief; other instances were authorized by Congress in some fashion; five were declared wars.
Historical practice supplies numerous cases in which Presidents, acting on the claim of inherent power, have introduced armed forces into situations in which they encountered, or risked encountering, hostilities, but which were not "wars" in either the common meaning or the constitutional sense. As the Supreme Court observed in 1990, "[t]he United States frequently employs Armed Forces outside this country -- over 200 times in our history -- for the protection of American citizens or national security." United States v. Verdugo-Urquidez, 494 U.S. 259, 273 (1990). In at least 125 instances, the President acted without express authorization from Congress.
Just out of curiosity, what do you think is the purpose of the War Powers Act and when should it be “brought into play”?
I do not think was -ever- meant to have the War Powers Act brought into play
I’m all for people keeping a check on executive power, but it’s disingenuous, or at least historically false, to make it seem like this is unprecedented or particular to this President.
Thank you for your reply.
Originally posted by Konah
The United States has made no such special agreement regarding the armed forces to be used. This effectively makes the second part of 22 U.S.C. §287d void, as the special agreement it references is nonexistent, and positively disproves his ability to authorize military action against Libya under this code..
As the United Nations does not have any armed forces at its disposal (for details, see Article 43), the Council uses Article 42 to authorize the use of force by a peacekeeping operation, multinational forces or interventions by regional organizations.
Well he has asserted authority: Reading Obama’s report, pursuant to Section 4(a) [50 USC 1543(a)] of the Act you mention, he is asserting he has authority because it’s in pursuance of a Security Council resolution, but mainly because it is “pursuant to my constitutional authority to conduct U.S. foreign relations and as Commander in Chief and Chief Executive.” He has taken an inherent powers position, it seems.
the POTUS still needs to have constitutional and legislative authority for the introduction of military attacks. This can be seen under Section 4a, Subsection 3b
But more importantly, where does Article 42 fall under your current interpretation of 287d? You didn’t make a single mention of it, but Article 42 is mentioned in the statute. If there was an Article 43 permanent UN force the UN didn’t need to use an Article 42 to authorize the use of force since it could call upon its own force...
...How do you conciliate your interpretation, where Article 42 doesn’t even come into play even though it is mentioned in the staute, and with the fact that the UN has to authorize force under Article 42 because there is no Article 43 force?
I didn’t meant to imply that it was ‘right.’ I was pointing out the history and precedents in response to those who pretend what the current president did is unprecedented.
Originally posted by Konah
Just because it has happened before doesn't make it right. Those who've acted without constitutional or legislative authority before, at the expense of spilled American and foreign blood among other things, were just as in the wrong.
The [War Powers Resolution] requires that, in the absence of a declaration of war, the President must report to Congress within 48 hours of introducing armed forces into such circumstances and must terminate the use of United States armed forces within 60 days (or 90 days, if military necessity requires additional time to effect a withdrawal) unless Congress permits otherwise. Id. § 1544(b). This structure makes sense only if the President may introduce troops into hostilities or potential hostilities without prior authorization by the Congress: the [War Powers Act] regulates such action by the President and seeks to set limits to it.
Reprisal: An act taken by a nation, short of war, to gain redress for an action taken against that nation
I wouldn’t worry about it. Even if you did contact your Congressmen or a judge, all they could give you is their opinions, they couldn’t give you a ‘right’ answer because these are constitutional questions that have never been resolved.
Originally posted by Konah
I hear ya. I'm really not sure how to go about confirming why I've researched, shy of contacting my Congressmen and hoping for a response. Maybe I should try to contact a judge and hope they take me seriously?
I wouldn’t call it a war, at least in the constitutional sense that I understand the purpose of the “declare war” clause in Article I Section 8, but it’s definitely not peace.
What would you call what's happening in Libya?
Well under your interpretation of 287d, and assuming the WPA is constitutional, then Obama couldn’t initiate this attack because there’s not an Article 43 agreement, because otherwise, the Act says he can “introduce troops into hostilities” up to 60 days without Congressional approval.
And no part of the Constitution, nor the War Powers Act, gives permission to initiate a war nor any actions that may initiate a war.
Originally posted by Konah
What would you call what's happening in Libya? We've been grossly offensive in our tactics without any attack to our nation; instituting a no-fly-zone over a sovereign nation followed by bombing their military targets could very easily be considered an act of war. I believe Ron Paul brought this up prior to the U.N.'s decision (not sure of the exact date). And no part of the Constitution, nor the War Powers Act, gives permission to initiate a war nor any actions that may initiate a war.
If what the president did was illegal and he's impeached for it, I can't look down on an action that potentially saved tens of thousands of peoples lives for fighting against a tyrannical leader who was willing to stop at nothing to kill his own people to maintain his power.
Hate me for it, I don't care.
Originally posted by Konah
reply to post by JakesterL
While I understand where you are coming from and agree with the points you've brought up, if we sit by idly then of course the United States, and the United Nations (if we can eventually prove their mutual agenda), will slip by squeaky clean.
Just as it is the duty of the President, Congress, armed forces, etcetera, to serve the Constitution, it is also our duty as United States citizens to serve it as well. No, we've taken no oath to do so, but letting it happen without any attempt whatsoever to bring the Nation's attention to it makes us just as guilty.
I will provide a copy of the letter I plan to send to my Congressmen, upon completion, at anyone's request if you do not wish to write one yourself. Spread the information, notify those who represent us. That's what we can do, and if people truly care they will respond - but at least we can say that we tried.
I don’t agree with this assessment. Everyone makes appeals to a particular piece of legislation or precedent to support their theory, but just because you can’t understand completely the legal complexities, or determine if they are right, doesn’t mean their arguments have merit.
The problem, I believe, lies instead with the lack of enforcement and accountability. And that, unquestionably, helps create the idea that what the law is doesn’t really matter.
I’m all for people keeping a check on executive power, but it’s disingenuous, or at least historically false, to make it seem like this is unprecedented or particular to this President.
Just out of curiosity, what do you think is the purpose of the War Powers Act and when should it be “brought into play”?
Under the United States Constitution, war powers are divided. Congress has the power to declare war, raise and support the armed forces, control the war funding (Article I, Section 8), and has "Power … to make all Laws which shall be necessary and proper for carrying into Execution … all other Powers vested by this Constitution in the Government of the United States, or in any Department or Officer thereof", while the President is commander-in-chief (Article II, Section 2). It is generally agreed that the commander-in-chief role gives the President power to repel attacks against the United States and makes the President responsible for leading the armed forces.[citation needed] In addition and as with all acts of the Congress, the President has the right to sign or veto congressional acts, such as a declaration of war.
During the Korean and Vietnam wars, the United States found itself involved for many years in situations of intense conflict without a declaration of war. Many members of Congress became concerned with the erosion of congressional authority to decide when the United States should become involved in a war or the use of armed forces that might lead to war. The War Powers Resolution was passed by both the House of Representatives and Senate but was vetoed by President Richard Nixon. By a two-thirds vote in each house, Congress overrode the veto and enacted the joint resolution into law on November 7, 1973.