I think this goes here....(end of the world)

Ok, I was watching the greatest movie ever (donnie darko) and a thought came to my mind. Do you think that end of the world will come when a paradox occurs? Which would then mean that the world has already ended and thus, for us, wont end until the paradox occurs in the past. Just wanted thoughts and recolection. Also, thoughts on paradoxes in general please.

This is way over my head, but...

If our future can't end until the paradox happens in the past, wouldn't that, in effect, mean that time itself is playing over and over in a continual loop?

After all, you can't reach the future without past events that lead up to it, and you can't change the past.

So... Where would you go from there?

*confused*

Originally posted by BooBaa
Ok, I was watching the greatest movie ever (donnie darko)

I will agree with you on that one. That movie rocks! It pretty much is always in my DVD player to cue up any time.

Anyway, regarding your prediction, I don't think so, because I just don't think time travel is possible yet. Just my opinion and lousy 2 cents.

how do we know that paradoxes hasn't occured already in the past. the "huge" number of people experiencing long lasting deja wu's is a hint on that. i myself has on several occations experienced what felt like deja wu for as long as a week at a time. maybe not one contious deja wu but several small ones every day.... i am experiencing it almost every day.. so who knows. maybe it all has really happened before.

what im saying/asking/you-get-the-idea is, that the paradox happend in the past, but the traveler who created the paradox is in the future. Scenario: John Walter in 3076 travels back to 1834 and creates a paradox. Thus in 2004 the paradox occured back in 1834 but inorder for it to still happen, we must wait until 3076. (i like to deep think a lot, so bare with me). if you still don't know or have any questions or, have any thoughts, reply! Or a random word sometimes is funny, ok im done....for now! muhuhahaha >.>

According to many scientists and science fiction writers, that wouldn't destroy our reality; it would just ensure that John Walter would never get back to his reality. John Walter's act would create two timelines -- two realities, both of which branch out from 1834. If John went forward in time again to 3076, it wouldn't be his 3076; it would be our 3076.

In theory, the number of timelines (of 'realities') depends on how many people have travelled back in time and created a paradox. Could be thousands; could be just a few; could be none.

The 'multiple realities' theory comes from quantum physics, and quarks... it gets into some really crazy scientific territory...

The explanation sounds a lot like Back To The Future 2, to me... LOL!

*going off to watch Donnie Darko to get an idea of where the heck you're coming from*

Originally posted by andhow
The explanation sounds a lot like Back To The Future 2, to me... LOL!

*going off to watch Donnie Darko to get an idea of where the heck you're coming from*

True, I love those movies. But I also learned about it in my Modern Physics class in college, so someone on the writing staff for the Back To The Future trilogy must have done their homework!

Originally posted by ThunderCloud
According to many scientists and science fiction writers, that wouldn't destroy our reality; it would just ensure that John Walter would never get back to his reality. John Walter's act would create two timelines -- two realities, both of which branch out from 1834. If John went forward in time again to 3076, it wouldn't be his 3076; it would be our 3076.

In theory, the number of timelines (of 'realities') depends on how many people have travelled back in time and created a paradox. Could be thousands; could be just a few; could be none.

The 'multiple realities' theory comes from quantum physics, and quarks... it gets into some really crazy scientific territory...

What would the two quantums contain?
say the paradox is when he kills a direct ansester of him (i.e. his great great great great grandpa)....i read that the two quantums that would form would be one where he would kill his grandpa (lets just call this scenario #1) and one where he doesn't (#2). But if this is true than this REALLY doesnt fix the problem in my eyes because the 1 quantem would still have a paradox in its self. because the grandpa still dies and the paradox continues thus not fixing the problem. Also, which quantem would john live in? 1 or 2, or would another "version" of him become existant and he goes into both. Which would common people (people not involved in the making of the paradox) go into 1, 2, or another "version" of them too?

*edit* keep in mind im only going into my junior year of high school...i have no background other than one website i visited and Darko, Donnie.... so if i seem dumb and/or uneducated....bare with me please

[edit on 7/14/2004 by BooBaa]

OK...

I'll admit I understand where the BTTF movies were going with their time line theories (maybe because it was written for young kids to understand?), but I *still* don't quite get the theories in this post.

I watched Donnie Darko as well - good movie, but I *REALLY* didn't get the point of that either... LOL!

It's a shame I'm 34 years old, with an above average IQ, and I can't "get it"...

At any rate - I'm sure my senility will kick in any time so I won't even remember not understanding!