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Originally posted by bulletproof_monk
If an atom is basically everywhere when it is not observed, how do we know that? We can't really prove that can we?
Does it have to do with the double slit experiment? Because when we don't observe something then atoms are all waves, but when we observe it it acts like a particle right?
Richard Feynman was fond of saying that all of quantum mechanics can be gleaned from carefully thinking through the implications of this single experiment
Restriction to the two experiments in which either both slits are open or one slit is closed has given rise to the idea of wave-particle complementarity according to which a microscopic object (photon, electron, etc.) would manifest itself as a particle in the which-way experiment but as a wave in the interference experiment. This idea has been felt to be counterintuitive by those not being content with an instrumentalist interpretation of quantum mechanics in which that theory is accepted as just describing phenomena without providing explanations.
Originally posted by bulletproof_monk
Hey thanks for the replies. Lot's of good info for me.
I was just wondering if you guys have heard about the random number generator experiments. I was gonna post a link but couldn't find one.. anyway this experiment said they found a noticable difference when people intended to get one number over the other (it generated 1s and 0s). I guess there really isn't any way to prove this, but it's interesting to look in to.
So i think i get this a little better. In the quantum world, there are different rules that apply when compared to the macro scale (the world we're used to). The outcome of what happens in the quantum world somehow creates what we see as our reality...
Is that correct?