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Originally posted by bowlbyville
Money can purchase access to mass-media (whether that be a flyer you find in your letterbox or an advertisement in a newspaper or an advertisement on TV or the lease of a hall for a speech by a guest).
If you take away money from the Free Speech argument and say that no one can spend a dime supporting their point of view, then yes, you have reduced their ability to get across their message...you've curtailed free speech (which is typically defined as speech "for or against your government" by the way).
There are still "boundaries" of course - you can't slander or yell "fire" when there isn't one, etc.
Originally posted by marg6043
reply to post by Dean Goldberry
Very simple it means that those with big money (insert corporations here be American or foreign) will be able to buy free speech in the media outlets, while the small people ( insert voters here ) will never be able to compete.
That means only money can actually buy now free speech when it comes to politicians in this nation.
Poor people now lost their voice. ( insert here most of the America regular tax payer).
Originally posted by marg6043
reply to post by Janky Red
Don't worry my friend I don't stay angry about differences of opinion for too long.
We all trying to find a common goal, be in religion, politics or anything else in this wold.
I always say that while we can disagree in some subjects is many others that we may find common ground.
Originally posted by Dean Goldberry
I'm seeking the advice or opinion of any Constitutional law or other legal expert, or anyone who's knowledgeable enough. I want to know how the spending of money equals free speech. Please elucidate the most scholarly argument possible for the justification for the entirely psychotic (as I see it) notion of money (ownership) and free speech being one in the same.
Money equals ownership or possession of goods and/or services. Period. What else does money do?