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If white Americans outnumbered Black Americans 10-1, does that mean the majority can vote to repeal the rights of Black people?
Amendment IX
The enumeration in the Constitution, of certain rights, shall not be construed to deny or disparage others retained by the people.
First of all, the majority rule should not infringe upon the rights of a minority
The voter turnout was 68.6% which means that the majority didn't vote in favour of prop 8, only a majority of those who turned out to vote.
This means that nearly 1/3 of voters didn't vote for one reason or another, and I assume that there is a good reason for this.
The second point (on a more conspiratorial note) is that much of the news regarding the prop 8 vote has centred on african american voters, voting about 2-1 in favour of prop 8, which has been widely reported in the MSM and various political blogs.
The Knights of Columbus, The Mormons
BUT, perhaps the most worrying aspect is the involvement of Blackwater in fundrasing and activism.
Originally posted by detachedindividual
If white Americans outnumbered Black Americans 10-1, does that mean the majority can vote to repeal the rights of Black people?
The Congress, whenever two thirds of both Houses shall deem it necessary, shall propose Amendments to this Constitution, or, on the Application of the Legislatures of two thirds of the several States, shall call a Convention for proposing Amendments, which, in either Case, shall be valid to all Intents and Purposes, as part of this Constitution, when ratified by the Legislatures of three fourths of the several States, or by Conventions in three fourths thereof, as the one or the other Mode of Ratification may be proposed by the Congress; Provided that no Amendment which may be made prior to the Year One thousand eight hundred and eight shall in any Manner affect the first and fourth Clauses in the Ninth Section of the first Article; and that no State, without its Consent, shall be deprived of its equal Suffrage in the Senate.
Originally posted by TKainZero
First of all, the majority rule should not infringe upon the rights of a minority
Does that mean the illegitimate ruling of the few(in this case, 4 people) should preside over the constitutional-back Will of the People. Because Government is supposed to be, For the people, By the people , and to protect the people.
Not the rule and decry of the few
[edit on 11/17/2008 by TKainZero]
Let's try this;
Suppose "Will of the People" (as you put it), through the electorial initiative process, decided that, henceforth
Muslims would no longer be allowed to have "children", as defined under the various statutes and laws applicable.
Children born to Muslim parents would become wards of the State. Their biological progenitors would have no say in their upbringing, and would enjoy only some of the legal or monetary benefits available to the parents of children from other origins.
Various rationalizations would, of course, have been proffered to support the placement and passage of this new law/constitutional amendment.
Muslims, and their various "liberal" supporters, would be up in arms over the law's passage, and would take to the streets in droves to protest.
Would you support:
the "Constitutionaly-backed 'Will of the People' to deny potential Muslim parents a right "so integral to an individual's liberty and personal autonomy that they may not be eliminated or abrogated by the legislature or by the electorate through the statutory initiative process"?
Or would you, in this case, support:
the "Fascists" on the State Supreme Court in over-turning the proposition, against the "Will of the People"?
And if you Still can't (or won't) grasp the paralells presented by these issues,
...Then perhaps you neither understand, nor deserve, the "individual liberty and personal autonomy" those "Fascist" Justices were trying to protect (when they ruled that Propsition 22 was unconstitutional).