It looks like you're using an Ad Blocker.
Please white-list or disable AboveTopSecret.com in your ad-blocking tool.
Thank you.
Some features of ATS will be disabled while you continue to use an ad-blocker.
Finally, the phrase "Son of Man" also emphasizes who Jesus is in relation to His incarnation and His work of salvation. In the Old Testament (Leviticus 25:25-26, 48-49; Ruth 2:20), the next of kin (one related by blood) always functioned as the "kinsman-redeemer" of a family member who needed redemption from jail. Jesus became related to us "by blood" (that is, He became a man) so He could function as our Kinsman-Redeemer and rescue us from sin.
Originally posted by NJE777
Well this in part is why I question...
If that be the case, then shouldn't the phrase be Father of Man?
Originally posted by WiseSheep
See?
Author: Dr. Ron Rhodes of Reasoning from the Scriptures Ministries
Originally posted by NJE777
I just think it is very odd that Revelations states JC pretty much all the way through, why not just say Son of God, or Jesus Christ in the clouds?
who is the Son of Man? It can't be JC cos he is the Son of God as per the bible.
Originally posted by NJE777
Who is it referring to?
any ideas?