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www.answersingenesis.org...
1. The word translated ‘replenish’ (KJV) simply means ‘fill’ in the Hebrew.
2. In the English of King James’ day, ‘replenish’ also usually meant ‘fill’, not ‘refill’.
3. The word ‘replenish’ therefore cannot be used to support ideas about a previous creation, which was destroyed. In any case, such erroneous theories, invented in response to the ‘millions of years’ idea, must hold to the unbiblical notion that there was death and suffering before Adam’s sin.
Originally posted by spaceman16
So why use the word replenish did they not have the word fill in biblical times?
Originally posted by Orca
that is so wrong!what bible do you need to read to come up with that? there is only one man which is adam!
Originally posted by spaceman16
Could you tell me the chapter and verse of where Cain found the other cities full of people? That would be interesting to ask my preacher about and see what he has to say.
Originally posted by Enkidu
Sounds like somebody's mixing up the official Bible release with bits of the Apocrypha.
Genesis 4:
17 Cain lay with his wife, and she became pregnant and gave birth to Enoch. Cain was then building a city
Genesis 4:
15 But the LORD said to him, "Not so [a] ; if anyone kills Cain, he will suffer vengeance seven times over." Then the LORD put a mark on Cain so that no one who found him would kill him. 16 So Cain went out from the LORD's presence and lived in the land of Nod
17Cain lay with his wife
Originally posted by spaceman16
It says here at wiki that the word nod translates as wandering, and that Cain was cursed to wander. Not that he was exiled to a land of wanderers. (but that still wouldn’t explain where his wife came from)
en.wikipedia.org...
and this site discusses where the land of nod and the city of Enoch was
nabataea.net...