posted on Jan, 25 2006 @ 06:53 PM
I am not sure that this is where this post should be...
I was just told that somewhere near where I live two men went to rob a house. I am not sure if either of them were armed. The tenant of the house
shot both men, killing one of them.
The robber that lived was just sentanced for the death of the dead robber. The reason was because he died as a result of the robbery, so it was his
fault the other guy died.
I am not sure, but I think that this is a little harsh. The robber did not kill that man, nor did he conspire to do so.
I don't understand how the government justifies this?