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originally posted by: quintessentone
Whereas any other person taken from West Africa into slavery and not put into those plantations should not get reparations? Is that your point?
Section 4. The validity of the public debt of the United States, authorized by law, including debts incurred for payment of pensions and bounties for services in suppressing insurrection or rebellion, shall not be questioned. But neither the United States nor any state shall assume or pay any debt or obligation incurred in aid of insurrection or rebellion against the United State or any claim for the loss or emancipation of any slave; but all such debts, obligations and claims shall be held illegal and void. ,
originally posted by: Solvedit
originally posted by: quintessentone
Whereas any other person taken from West Africa into slavery and not put into those plantations should not get reparations? Is that your point?
Didn't you read the part about the UFOs and the ancient scrolls?
[
A racial entitlement is only permissible to remedy the government’s own discrimination, not societal discrimination. It cannot provide race-based “remedies that are ageless in their reach into the past, and timeless in their ability to affect the future.” (See Richmond v. J.A. Croson Co., 488 U.S. 469, 497 (1995)). Reparations for slavery would be just such an improper “remedy.” On the other hand, the government need only show a “prima facie” case of such discrimination, not smoking-gun evidence of it, to adopt race-based affirmative action
but all such debts, obligations and claims shall be held illegal and void.
originally posted by: quintessentone
Is this thread just a trip down history lane or did I get your point correct?
originally posted by: Solvedit
originally posted by: quintessentone
Is this thread just a trip down history lane or did I get your point correct?
If you didn't bother to read the OP, you're probably not going to wade through the explanation, even though I went into several paragraphs just so I could break everything down simply.
originally posted by: quintessentone
a reply to: Solvedit
So with you deep diving into the history with this topic, is this what you might consider should be used as deciding factors in how dolling out reparations should be handled?
originally posted by: Solvedit
originally posted by: quintessentone
a reply to: Solvedit
So with you deep diving into the history with this topic, is this what you might consider should be used as deciding factors in how dolling out reparations should be handled?
How do I know what you're asking if you haven't bothered to read the OP or the explanation?
It's a simple question, yes. Unfortunately, it's not at all germane to anything I wrote. Go back and read the part about the UFOs and the Ancient Scrolls.
originally posted by: BernnieJGato
the way i see it is, the past is dead and gone, except anything over a reasonable time. especially for those that didn't even have anything to do with it or even know their ancestors should have to pay for the sins of their fathers.
Nor should those that didn't even have anything to do with it or even know their ancestors should revive monies for the misfortunes of their ancestors. hell some of their ancestor may have even helped cause those misfortunes.
originally posted by: quintessentone
It certainly is directly referencing your thread title. I am asking you is your deep diving in history looking for reasons why some descendants are not owed reparations?
originally posted by: FlyersFan
Even if you are very very liberal on this, as of 1860 it was only at most 20% of Americans, who lived in seceding states, who owned slaves. The 80% in those states did not. 100% in the other states did not. Also many Americans in those other states died fighting against slavery. And there is the fact that many many people who live here are from immigrant families that weren't even here before the civil war. The biggie - any so called 'slave wealth' was destroyed when the South lost the war. The families who actually owned slaves aren't all sitting around on piles of money from it. It's gone.
originally posted by: Solvedit
originally posted by: quintessentone
It certainly is directly referencing your thread title. I am asking you is your deep diving in history looking for reasons why some descendants are not owed reparations?
I'm afraid you're going to have to read about those UFOs and those scrolls if you want an answer.
originally posted by: quintessentone
originally posted by: Solvedit
originally posted by: quintessentone
a reply to: Solvedit
So with you deep diving into the history with this topic, is this what you might consider should be used as deciding factors in how dolling out reparations should be handled?
How do I know what you're asking if you haven't bothered to read the OP or the explanation?
It's a simple question, yes. Unfortunately, it's not at all germane to anything I wrote. Go back and read the part about the UFOs and the Ancient Scrolls.
It certainly is directly referencing your thread title. I am asking you is your deep diving in history looking for reasons why some descendants are not owed reparations?
originally posted by: SchrodingersRat
originally posted by: quintessentone
originally posted by: Solvedit
originally posted by: quintessentone
a reply to: Solvedit
So with you deep diving into the history with this topic, is this what you might consider should be used as deciding factors in how dolling out reparations should be handled?
How do I know what you're asking if you haven't bothered to read the OP or the explanation?
It's a simple question, yes. Unfortunately, it's not at all germane to anything I wrote. Go back and read the part about the UFOs and the Ancient Scrolls.
It certainly is directly referencing your thread title. I am asking you is your deep diving in history looking for reasons why some descendants are not owed reparations?
In my opinion, no one is entitled to reparations for events that occurred 150 years ago.
None of the people that would receive reparations were alive and slaves then.
It's ludicrous.